ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. In cases of warfarin overdose or excessive anticoagulation leading to bleeding events, the antidote is vitamin K. Vitamin K helps to reverse the effects of warfarin by promoting the production of clotting factors that are inhibited by warfarin. Administering vitamin K can help normalize the patient's coagulation parameters and stop bleeding in cases of warfarin over-anticoagulation.
Question 2 of 5
The client tells the nurse that her symptoms have become worse since she has been using oxymetazoline (Afrin) for nasal congestion. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxymetazoline causes rebound congestion if used beyond 3-5 days. Asking 'How long have you been using the medication?' identifies misuse, the likely cause of worsening symptoms. Bottle age , temperature , and other medications are secondary. D targets the root issue, making it the best question.
Question 3 of 5
A 26-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of seasonal allergies. She has done well without medications for some time but now has worsening of her symptoms. She is given a prescription for fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse effects must be considered in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fexofenadine for allergies may cause headache , a frequent side effect of this non-sedating antihistamine. Flank pain , otitis , infection , and tinnitus (E) are rare. Headache monitoring ensures safe symptom relief.
Question 4 of 5
Which classification of drugs would the nurse refuse to administer to a pregnant patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Teratogenic drugs (e.g., thalidomide) cause fetal harm, absolute no-go in pregnancy, per safety. Category A is safe (e.g., levothyroxine). Category B has no human risk (e.g., metformin). ‘Cautionary' isn't a class-teratogenic fits X or known risks. Refusing teratogens protects the fetus, a clear rule.
Question 5 of 5
The ophthalmologist asks the nurse to prepare to assist in the administration of tetracaine, fluorescein stain, and atropine for a diagnostic eye examination. Before assisting in the procedure, it is most important for the nurse to inform the ophthalmologist if the patient has a history of which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine is a mydriatic agent that dilates the pupil and can precipitate angle-closure glaucoma in patients with a narrow anterior chamber angle. Therefore, it is critical to inform the ophthalmologist if the patient has a history of angle-closure glaucoma. Cataracts (A), open-angle glaucoma (C), and macular degeneration (D) are not contraindications for the use of atropine.