A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (B) as the cause. Placental previa (A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.

Question 2 of 9

A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red wine colored. Following a prostatectomy, continuous bladder irrigation is commonly used to prevent blood clots and ensure urine drainage. The output is expected to be red wine colored, indicating the presence of blood in the urine due to surgical trauma. Tea-colored (choice B) or amber (choice C) are not specific enough and do not accurately reflect the expected bloody output. Light pink (choice D) may suggest a lower level of bleeding compared to red wine color, but it is not the most accurate description for post-prostatectomy drainage.

Question 3 of 9

In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because an incomplete abortion at 16 weeks may require a D&C to remove remaining tissue to prevent infection and complications. Incomplete abortion means not all fetal tissue has been expelled, posing a risk. Choice A (complete abortion at 8 weeks) does not require a D&C as all tissue is expelled. Choice C (threatened abortion at 6 weeks) does not necessitate immediate intervention. Choice D (incomplete abortion at 10 weeks) is not the best choice as the risk of complications increases with gestational age.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse believes that the nurse-patient relationshipis a partnership and that both are equal participants. Which term should the nurse use to describe this belief?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct term to describe the belief that the nurse-patient relationship is a partnership where both are equal participants is "Mutuality" (C). This term emphasizes the idea of shared responsibility, respect, and collaboration between the nurse and the patient. It signifies a relationship built on equality and mutual understanding, fostering trust and positive outcomes. Choice A (Critical thinking) involves analyzing and evaluating information, which is essential for decision-making but does not directly reflect the equality and partnership aspect of the nurse-patient relationship. Choice B (Authentic) relates to being genuine and true to oneself, which is important in building trust but does not specifically address the equal participation aspect in the relationship. Choice D (Attend) means to be present or pay attention, which is a fundamental aspect of nursing care but does not capture the full essence of a partnership based on equality and mutual involvement.

Question 5 of 9

The patient has just started on enteral feedings, and the patient is reporting abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse takenext?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: Abdominal cramping in a patient on enteral feedings could indicate feeding intolerance. The nurse's initial action should be to slow down the rate of the tube feeding to allow the patient's gastrointestinal tract to adjust gradually. This helps reduce the risk of further complications and allows for better tolerance. Slowing the rate is a safe and effective intervention that can help alleviate the abdominal cramping without causing additional stress on the patient's digestive system. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Instilling cold formula is not a recommended practice and can potentially cause harm or discomfort to the patient. C: Changing to a high-fat formula may exacerbate the abdominal cramping as it can be harder to digest for some patients. D: Consulting with the healthcare provider about prokinetic medication should come after trying less invasive interventions such as slowing the rate of tube feeding.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with suspected Parkinsons disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the patient is resting. This is because the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease is most noticeable when the patient is at rest due to the characteristic "resting tremor" seen in this condition. The tremor tends to lessen or disappear with purposeful movements or activities, making it more difficult to assess during ambulation, meal preparation, or occupational therapy. By observing the patient at rest, the nurse can accurately assess the presence and severity of the tremor, which is a key diagnostic feature of Parkinson's disease. Other answer choices are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal condition for assessing the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents to the emergency department with paraphimosis. The physician is able to compress the glans and manually reduce the edema. Once the inflammation and edema subside, what is usually indicated?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Circumcision. Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted behind the glans and cannot be returned to its original position. Once the inflammation and edema subside, circumcision is typically indicated to prevent recurrence. This procedure removes the foreskin, reducing the risk of future paraphimosis episodes. Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum (A) is not indicated for paraphimosis. Abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks (C) is not a standard treatment for paraphimosis. Administration of vardenafil (D) is used for erectile dysfunction and not indicated for paraphimosis.

Question 8 of 9

One aspect of the nurses comprehensive assessment when caring for the terminally ill is the assessment of hope. The nurse is assessing a patient with liver failure for the presence of hope. What would the nurse identify as a hope-fostering category?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uplifting memories. When assessing hope in a terminally ill patient, identifying uplifting memories can foster hope by providing emotional support, positive experiences, and a sense of purpose. Memories can inspire optimism and comfort in difficult times. B: Ignoring negative outcomes is incorrect as it does not address the patient's emotional needs or promote coping strategies. C: Envisioning one specific outcome is incorrect because hope should encompass a range of possibilities, not just one specific outcome. D: Avoiding an actual or potential threat is incorrect as it focuses on avoidance rather than on promoting positive emotions and psychological well-being.

Question 9 of 9

In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which information is important for the nurse to share?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because saturated fats are primarily found in animal sources such as red meat, poultry, and dairy products. It is important to limit the intake of saturated fats on a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of heart disease and other health issues. A: Polyunsaturated fats are actually considered healthy fats and should not be restricted to less than 7% of total calories. B: Transfat is a type of unhealthy fat that should be avoided altogether, not just limited to 7% of total calories. C: Unsaturated fats are actually found mostly in plant-based sources like nuts, seeds, and avocados, not animal sources. In summary, choice D is correct because it provides accurate information about the source of saturated fats in animal products, while the other choices provide incorrect or misleading information about different types of fats.

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