ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient was rushed to the ER because of difficulty in urination. He was diagnosed then as a cse of benign prostate hyperthropy (BPH) and was advised by the doctor to undego transurethral resection of prostate (TURP). Based on the urgency of the surgery, the nurse classifies this condition as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing difficulty in urination due to benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to serious complications like acute urinary retention. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a surgical procedure that is used to relieve the obstruction caused by BPH. Given the urgency of the situation and the potential for acute complications, the surgery needs to be performed immediately to prevent further harm to the patient's health. Classifying this condition as an emergency ensures prompt intervention and prioritizes the patient's well-being. Summary: - B: C.urgent (not correct): While the surgery is time-sensitive, it does not require immediate intervention like in an emergency situation. - C: elective (not correct): Elective surgeries are planned in advance and are not typically performed in urgent situations like this one. - D: required (not correct): While the surgery is necessary for the patient's condition
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is documenting the progress of a client who has been recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in the evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it directly reflects the client's progress in physical activity, a key indicator of recovery post-myocardial infarction. Walking 500 meters without chest pain shows improved cardiovascular function and exercise tolerance. Vital signs and lab results from admission (A) are important for initial assessment but not for ongoing evaluation. Physician notes (C) may provide insights but do not directly measure the client's progress. Medications prescribed (D) are important but do not reflect the client's specific improvement in physical activity.
Question 3 of 9
Which action will the nurse take after the plan of care for a patient is developed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because after developing a plan of care, the nurse must communicate it to all healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care to ensure everyone is aware of the plan and can collaborate effectively. This promotes continuity of care and prevents errors. Choice A is incorrect because the plan of care should not be placed in the chart to avoid tampering; it should be easily accessible for updates. Choice C is incorrect as filing in the administration office is unnecessary for routine care. Choice D is incorrect as sending the plan to quality assurance is not the immediate next step after developing the plan.
Question 4 of 9
A home care nurse is assessing a client who is taking prazosin (Minipress). Which statement by the client would support the nursing diagnosis of noncompliance with medication therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the correct answer - C: “I feel dizzy, I’ll skip my dose for a few days.” Step 2: Explanation - This statement indicates that the client is experiencing a known side effect of prazosin (dizziness) and plans to stop the medication temporarily without consulting the healthcare provider, showing noncompliance. Step 3: Supporting details - Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment and potential health risks. Step 4: Comparison with other choices: A: This statement shows the client questioning the need for medication but does not indicate current noncompliance. B: This statement demonstrates difficulty reading labels but does not directly relate to medication compliance. D: This statement shows awareness about medication interactions but does not indicate noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen. Summary: Choice C is correct as it directly reflects noncompliance by planning to skip doses without consulting the healthcare provider, leading to potential adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate the
Question 5 of 9
The clinical manifestations of Parkinson’s disease (bradykinesia rigidity and tremors) is directly related to a decreased level of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dopamine. Parkinson's disease is primarily caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, leading to the characteristic symptoms of bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in movement control. Acetylcholine (Choice A) is not directly related to Parkinson's disease, although its imbalance can contribute to other movement disorders. Serotonin (Choice B) and Phenylalanine (Choice D) are not primarily involved in the pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease.
Question 6 of 9
A post-TURP patient experiences dribbling following removal of his catheter. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is instructing a client with newly diagnosed hypoparathyroidism about the regimen used to treat this disorder. The nurse should state that the physician probably will prescribe daily supplements of calcium and:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin D. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. Vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines, thus aiding in maintaining normal calcium levels. It is often prescribed along with calcium supplements to support bone health and prevent complications. Folic acid (A) is not directly related to the treatment of hypoparathyroidism. Potassium (B) is not typically prescribed for this condition and can be harmful in high levels. Iron (D) is not directly involved in calcium metabolism and is not part of the standard treatment regimen for hypoparathyroidism.
Question 8 of 9
Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleeps for a period of time. After a seizure, the brain and body experience fatigue and exhaustion. It is common for the patient to feel drowsy and require rest to recover. This post-ictal state is characterized by sleepiness and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because typically, after a seizure, the patient is not most comfortable walking and moving about (A), does not become restless and agitated (C), and may not immediately express thirst and hunger (D). It is important to ensure the patient is in a safe environment and allow them to rest after a seizure episode.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse teach the patient is the most common site for ear infections?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Middle ear. This is because the middle ear is the most common site for ear infections due to its anatomy, including the Eustachian tube that can easily become blocked, leading to fluid buildup and infection. The outer ear (A) is less susceptible to infections, while the inner ear (C) and semicircular canal (D) are not typically involved in ear infections, as they are more related to balance and hearing functions rather than infection susceptibility.