A patient was prescribed an oral antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis. The patient has now stopped, stating she developed a rash shortly after taking the first dose of the drug. What is the nurses most appropriate response?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient was prescribed an oral antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis. The patient has now stopped, stating she developed a rash shortly after taking the first dose of the drug. What is the nurses most appropriate response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Refer the woman to her primary care provider to have the medication changed. Rationale: 1. Rash after taking the first dose of an antibiotic suggests a possible allergic reaction. 2. Allergic reactions can range from mild to severe, including anaphylaxis. 3. It is crucial to discontinue the suspected medication to prevent worsening of the reaction. 4. Referring the patient to their primary care provider ensures proper evaluation and management. 5. Changing the medication is necessary to avoid potential harm from continued exposure. Summary: A: Continuing the medication can worsen the allergic reaction and is not recommended. C: Going to the emergency department may be excessive at this point for a mild rash. D: Taking an antihistamine does not address the underlying issue of an allergic reaction.

Question 2 of 9

A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgery. Surgery is the most effective treatment modality for severe Peyronie's disease as it can correct the penile curvature and alleviate pain. Physical therapy (A) may not be effective in severe cases. PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are used for erectile dysfunction but do not treat the underlying Peyronie's disease. Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections (C) may be used for less severe cases, but in severe cases, surgery is recommended for optimal outcomes.

Question 3 of 9

An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patients wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Tumor-specific antigens are unique to cancer cells and are not found in normal cells. This characteristic distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells and is important in cancer detection and treatment. A: Malignant cells do not necessarily contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix and is not a defining characteristic of cancer cells. C: Chromosomes in cancer cells are actually more prone to instability and mutations compared to normal cells, making them less durable and stable. D: The nuclei of cancer cells can vary in size and shape, with irregularities often seen, rather than being unusually large and regularly shaped.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.

Question 5 of 9

When teaching patients about the risk factors of cervical cancer, what would the nurse identify as the most important risk factor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer as it is responsible for almost all cases. Step 1: HPV infection can lead to changes in cervical cells, increasing the risk of cancer. Step 2: Early detection and vaccination against HPV can prevent cervical cancer. Step 3: Other factors like late childbearing, postmenopausal bleeding, and tobacco use may be associated with increased risk but are not as directly linked to cervical cancer development.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is taking a history on a patient whocannot speak English. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain an interpreter. This is the best action as it ensures effective communication and accurate understanding of the patient's history and needs. Using a professional interpreter maintains confidentiality, avoids misinterpretation, and promotes cultural sensitivity. Referring to a speech therapist (B) is not appropriate for language barriers. Letting a family member talk (C) may compromise privacy and accuracy. Finding a mental health nurse specialist (D) is not needed for language translation.

Question 7 of 9

A patient has presented for her annual mammogram. The patient voices concerns related to exposure to radiation. What should the nurse teach the patient about a mammogram?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Mammograms use low-dose X-rays to create images of the breast tissue. Step 2: The radiation exposure in a mammogram is minimal and considered safe. Step 3: Choice A is correct as it states that mammograms do not use radiation, which is accurate. Step 4: Other choices are incorrect because B wrongly implies that annual mammograms are safe due to low radiation levels, C is incorrect as radiation effects can accumulate over time, and D is incorrect as the amount of radiation in a mammogram is much lower than an hour of sunlight.

Question 8 of 9

A pediatric nurse is emotionally distraught by the death of a 9-year-old girl who received care on the unit over the course of many admissions spanning several years. What action is the most appropriate response to the nurses own grief?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking time off from work to mourn allows the nurse to process their emotions and prevent burnout. This self-care step promotes mental well-being and helps prevent the nurse from being overwhelmed by their grief. Choice B is incorrect as it may prolong the grieving process and create a constant reminder of the loss. Choice C could potentially burden the patient's family with the nurse's grief, making it an inappropriate action. Choice D, attending the memorial service, may be emotionally challenging and may not provide the nurse with the necessary space to cope with their grief effectively.

Question 9 of 9

Initiate feeding.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (2, 4, 1, 3, 5) because it follows the correct sequential order for initiating feeding. First, you need to prepare the food (2), then set up the feeding area (4), followed by inviting the person to eat (1), serving the food (3), and finally allowing them to eat (5). The other choices do not adhere to the logical sequence required for initiating feeding. Choice A and D have incorrect sequences of steps, while Choice C has steps 1 and 4 switched, which disrupts the proper order of initiating feeding.

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