A patient was for transfer to a tertiary hospital because of severe asthma, but the nurse do not prepare the patient right away and the patient dies. Which of the following the nurse is liable?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient was for transfer to a tertiary hospital because of severe asthma, but the nurse do not prepare the patient right away and the patient dies. Which of the following the nurse is liable?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's failure to promptly prepare the patient for transfer to a tertiary hospital resulted in the patient's death. This situation falls under the category of malpractice, which refers to professional negligence or failure to provide a standard level of care that results in harm to a patient. The nurse had a duty to ensure the patient's timely transfer and by delaying the necessary actions, the nurse failed to uphold this duty, leading to a tragic outcome. Murder, assault, and battery are criminal offenses that do not fit the circumstances described in the scenario.

Question 2 of 9

A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for the treatment of GERD should be closely monitored for the development of osteoporosis. PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of developing osteoporotic fractures, particularly in long-term users. This risk is thought to be due to decreased calcium absorption as stomach acidity is reduced by PPIs, leading to potential alterations in bone metabolism and density. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to assess bone health, educate patients on calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and consider other risk factors for osteoporosis in individuals taking PPIs long-term. While hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and Clostridium difficile infection may be seen as adverse effects with other medications or conditions, osteoporosis is the adverse effect most closely monitored in patients taking PPIs for GERD.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following IS TRUE about osteoporosis

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Osteoporosis is known as a "silent disease" because it develops slowly over time without any symptoms. Many people with osteoporosis are unaware of their condition until they experience a fracture. The loss of bone density and strength in osteoporosis occurs without any obvious warning signs, making it important for individuals at risk to undergo bone density testing to identify the condition early and prevent further bone loss.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease presents with pruritus, pale skin, and easy bruising. Laboratory findings reveal anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The given patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is likely experiencing uremic bleeding diathesis. Uremic bleeding diathesis is a complication of CKD characterized by abnormal platelet function, leading to a tendency for bleeding. The presence of anemia, thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), pale skin, easy bruising, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are all consistent with uremic bleeding diathesis.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is preparing to assist with a cardiopulmonary exercise stress test for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure patient safety during the test?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most critical action to prioritize for ensuring patient safety during a cardiopulmonary exercise stress test is to monitor the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm continuously during the test (Option B). This monitoring allows the healthcare team to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or signs of cardiac distress, enabling timely intervention if necessary. Continuous ECG monitoring is essential during exercise testing as it helps in assessing the heart's response to physical activity and identifying any potential cardiac abnormalities or complications that may arise during the test. By closely monitoring the ECG rhythm, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety and well-being throughout the procedure. Administering a beta-blocker medication before the test (Option A) may be indicated in some cases but is not as crucial as continuous ECG monitoring during the test. Encouraging the patient to consume a heavy meal before the test (Option C) is contraindicated as it can interfere with the accuracy of the results

Question 6 of 9

A patient asks the nurse about alternative treatment options for their condition. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response when a patient asks about alternative treatment options is to provide the patient with information about those options, including their benefits and risks. It is important for the nurse to support the patient in their exploration of different treatment approaches and empower them to make informed decisions about their care. Dismissing the question, ignoring it, or discouraging alternative treatments are not appropriate responses and may hinder the patient's ability to make choices that align with their values and preferences. Therefore, providing information and facilitating an open discussion about alternative treatments is the most appropriate approach for the patient's best interest.

Question 7 of 9

In caring for this patient suffering from anorexia nervous, which task can be delegated to the nursing assistant?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Task A, obtaining special food for the patient when she requests it, can be delegated to the nursing assistant. This task involves simple assistance with gathering food items and does not require specific medical knowledge or interventions. Tasks B, C, and D involve more direct patient care and assessment, which should be performed by the nursing staff who have the necessary training and expertise to address the complexities of anorexia nervosa.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with a pruritic, annular rash with central clearing and a raised, scaly border. The lesions have a tendency to spread outward in a centrifugal pattern. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The described presentation of a pruritic, annular rash with central clearing and a raised, scaly border that spreads outward in a centrifugal pattern is characteristic of tinea corporis, commonly known as ringworm. This fungal infection affects the skin and is typically ring-shaped, with a well-defined, slightly raised, and scaly border. The central area often clears as the lesion enlarges peripherally, resembling a ring. It is important to note that ringworm is not caused by a worm but by a fungus. Treatment typically involves antifungal medications applied topically or taken orally, depending on the severity of the infection.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increased dyspnea, wheezing, and productive cough. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for bronchodilation and symptom relief in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol (salbutamol) is a short-acting beta agonist bronchodilator commonly used for quick relief of bronchoconstriction in patients with COPD. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, allowing for easier breathing and improved airflow. The patient's increased dyspnea, wheezing, and productive cough are indicative of bronchoconstriction, and albuterol is the most appropriate medication to provide rapid bronchodilation and symptom relief in this situation. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine and not typically used for bronchodilation in COPD. Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that may be used in the maintenance treatment of COPD but is not the initial choice for acute symptom relief. Prednisone is a cortic

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