A patient was diagnosed with active focal pulmonary tuberculosis. What drug should be prescribed in the first place?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. Isoniazid is a first-line drug for treating active pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy and low toxicity. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids in the bacterial cell wall. Sulfalen, Cyclocerine, and Ethionamide are not first-line drugs for tuberculosis. Sulfalen is used for urinary tract infections, Cyclocerine for drug-resistant tuberculosis, and Ethionamide as a second-line drug for multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. Therefore, Isoniazid is the most appropriate initial choice for treating active focal pulmonary tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: prions. Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause spongiform encephalopathy by inducing normal proteins to misfold as well. Prions lack genetic material, distinguishing them from viruses (B), bacteria (C), and fungi (D), which all contain genetic material and cannot directly cause spongiform encephalopathy through protein misfolding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella typhi. The patient's symptoms of diarrhea and the characteristics of non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that are oxidase-positive and fermentative are consistent with Salmonella typhi. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever, which presents with symptoms like diarrhea. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (choice A) is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Escherichia coli (choice B) is both lactose-fermenting and oxidase-negative. Shigella dysenteriae (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Therefore, Salmonella typhi is the most likely causative agent based on the given information.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leffler's method. In this staining method, gentian violet solution is used as the primary stain, followed by Lugol's solution as a mordant, 960 spiritus as a decolorizer, and water fuchsin as a counterstain. Gentian violet stains the organisms purple, Lugol's solution helps in fixing the dye, 960 spiritus decolorizes non-specifically, and water fuchsin acts as a counterstain to help visualize the bacteria. Leffler's method is specifically used for staining sputum smears in suspected cases of croupous pneumonia. Summary: B: Gram's staining uses crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, and safranin. It is mainly used for distinguishing between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. C: Ziehl-Neelsen's staining is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis using carbol fuchsin and acid-alcohol

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Both Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are known to form spores. 2. Spore formation is a mechanism for survival in harsh conditions. 3. Both bacteria are capable of causing severe diseases in humans. Summary: - Choice A and B are incorrect because each bacteria listed is capable of spore formation. - Choice D is incorrect as both bacteria mentioned can form spores to survive extreme conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The given characteristics match this bacterium: Gram-positive diplococci, catalase-negative, and alpha-hemolytic. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Other choices are incorrect because Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive, Enterococcus faecalis is not alpha-hemolytic, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is not Gram-positive diplococci.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum. The symptoms described in the question, such as bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils, and difficulty reading, are indicative of tetanus infection. The source of infection could be the scratch on the knee, which allowed the tetanus bacteria to enter the body. The most appropriate therapy for tetanus is the administration of antitetanus serum to neutralize the tetanus toxin. Antibotulinic serum (choice A) is not appropriate as it is used for botulism, which presents differently. Disintoxication (choice B) is too general and does not address the specific cause of the symptoms. Antibiotics (choice C) are not effective in treating tetanus because it is caused by a toxin, not a bacterial infection. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer antitetanus serum to the patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is an antifungal medication, not an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections like generalized meningococcal infection. Penicillin G, macrolides, and chloramphenicol are antibiotics commonly used to treat bacterial infections, including meningococcal infections. Penicillin G is the drug of choice for meningococcal infections, while macrolides and chloramphenicol are alternative options. Nystatin is not effective against bacteria, so it is not a suitable treatment for meningococcal infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the rabies virus. Rabies virus has the widest infectious spectrum among the given choices because it can infect a wide range of mammals, including humans. This is due to its ability to infect nerve cells and spread throughout the central nervous system. The other choices have more limited infectious spectra. Anthrax bacillus primarily infects herbivores and humans, mumps virus infects mainly humans, and the causative agent of gonorrhea primarily infects humans through sexual contact. Therefore, the rabies virus is the correct answer as it has the broadest range of potential hosts.