ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient visits her nurse practitioner (NP) after she has a cold for a week and is now experiencing a severe headache and fever. Her NP diagnoses a sinus infection. Which of the following additional symptoms is the patient likely to exhibit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facial tenderness. Sinus infections commonly present with facial tenderness due to the inflammation and pressure within the sinuses. This symptom is often accompanied by pain or pressure around the eyes, cheeks, and forehead. Photophobia (B) is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or meningitis. Chest pain (C) is not a typical symptom of a sinus infection. Ear drainage (D) is more indicative of an ear infection rather than a sinus infection.
Question 2 of 9
The initial neurological symptom of Guilain-Barre Syndrome is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid onset of weakness and tingling sensations in the legs. Step 2: Paresthesia refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, which is a common initial neurological symptom of GBS. Step 3: Absent tendon reflexes may occur in GBS due to muscle weakness but are not typically the initial symptom. Step 4: Dysrhythmias and transient hypertension are not typical symptoms of GBS and are not associated with its initial presentation. In summary, choice B is correct as paresthesia of the legs is a hallmark initial neurological symptom of Guillain-Barre Syndrome, while choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical presentation of GBS.
Question 3 of 9
Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, the nurse would assess for hyperkalemia shown by which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. After unilateral adrenalectomy, there is a risk of hyperkalemia due to decreased aldosterone production. Aldosterone helps regulate potassium levels in the body. Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can affect muscle function. Diaphoresis, tremors, and constipation are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, tremors are involuntary muscle movements, and constipation is difficulty passing stool. These symptoms are not directly related to potassium imbalance.
Question 4 of 9
After assessing the patient and identifying the need for headache relief, the nurse administers acetaminophen for the patient’s headache. Which action by the nurse is priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reassess the patient's pain level in 30 minutes. This is the priority action as it allows the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the acetaminophen in relieving the patient's headache. By reassessing the pain level, the nurse can determine if the medication is working or if further intervention is needed. A: Eliminating the headache from the care plan is not appropriate as the patient's comfort and pain relief should be a priority. B: Directing the nursing assistive personnel to inquire if the headache is relieved is not thorough assessment and does not provide direct evaluation of the patient's pain level. D: Revising the plan of care may be necessary based on the reassessment, but it is not the immediate priority compared to evaluating the patient's response to treatment.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff adverse reactions may occur when a client is taking danazol (Danocrine) for fibrocystic breast disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Danazol is a synthetic steroid used to treat fibrocystic breast disease by suppressing ovulation and hormonal fluctuations. This leads to a decrease in menstrual bleeding, resulting in amenorrhea. Nausea and confusion are not common adverse reactions of danazol. Hypotension is also not associated with danazol use. In summary, amenorrhea is the expected side effect due to the drug's mechanism of action, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.
Question 6 of 9
A client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dysplasia refers to the alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. Dysplasia is an abnormal growth or development of cells that can be a precursor to cancer. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be seen in Papanicolaou tests. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an undifferentiated tumor, not dysplasia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes hyperplasia, not dysplasia. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to metaplasia, not dysplasia. In summary, dysplasia is specifically about the abnormal changes in the appearance and organization of differentiated cells, making choice D the correct definition.
Question 7 of 9
An elderly patient, Mr. Cruz is being cared for by nurse Bennie because of pulmonary embolism. Nurse Bennie would anticipate an order for immediate administration of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant used for immediate treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. It acts quickly by inhibiting clotting factors. Warfarin (A) is used for long-term anticoagulation but has a slower onset. Dexamethasone (C) is a corticosteroid used for inflammation, not thrombosis. Protamine sulfate (D) is used to reverse the effects of heparin but is not indicated for initial treatment.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff. nursing actions prepares a patient for a lumbar puncture?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the patient on his or her side. This is essential for a lumbar puncture as it helps to open up the spinal spaces, making it easier and safer for the procedure. Positioning the patient on their side also helps prevent complications such as nerve damage or spinal fluid leakage. A: Administering enemas until clear is unnecessary and not directly related to preparing a patient for a lumbar puncture. C: Removing all metal jewelry is important to prevent interference with imaging studies, but it is not directly related to preparing for a lumbar puncture. D: Removing the patient’s dentures is not specifically required for a lumbar puncture procedure.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who requires a complex dressing change. While in the patient’s room, the nurse decides to change the dressing. Which action will the nurse take just before changing the dressing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because gathering and organizing needed supplies is a crucial step before performing a complex dressing change. By ensuring all necessary supplies are readily available, the nurse can streamline the process, minimize interruptions, and promote efficiency. This step also helps maintain aseptic technique and prevent the spread of infection. Deciding on goals and outcomes (B) is important but typically done as part of the care planning process, not immediately before a dressing change. Assessing the patient's readiness (C) is also important but can be done concurrently with gathering supplies. Calling for assistance (D) may be necessary in some situations, but it is not the immediate step required just before changing the dressing.