ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient visiting with family members in the waiting area tells the nurse “I don’t feel good, especially in the stomach.” What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to return to the room, so the nurse can inspect the abdomen. Rationale: 1. Patient safety: By examining the patient's abdomen, the nurse can assess for any signs of distress or potential medical issues. 2. Patient-centered care: It is essential to prioritize the patient's well-being by addressing their concerns promptly and appropriately. 3. Professional responsibility: Nurses are trained to assess and evaluate patient symptoms to provide necessary care and support. Summary: A: Requesting the family to leave does not address the patient's symptoms and may disrupt the patient's support system. C: Asking about bowel movements and offering food may not be appropriate if the patient is experiencing stomach discomfort. D: Offering food without proper assessment may worsen the patient's condition and is not recommended before a proper evaluation.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis of Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination, which indicates the patient's willingness to improve their urinary elimination abilities. Health promotion diagnoses focus on improving the client's well-being and enhancing their health potential. In this scenario, the patient's desire to learn self-catheterization aligns with health promotion as it involves empowering the patient to take an active role in their care. Choice A (Risk) is incorrect because the patient is not currently at risk for urinary elimination issues, but rather seeking to enhance their abilities. Choice B (Problem focused) is incorrect as the diagnosis is not about addressing a current problem but rather focusing on potential improvement. Choice D (Collaborative problem) is incorrect as it does not involve collaboration between healthcare providers but rather focuses on the patient's readiness and willingness to enhance their own health outcomes.
Question 4 of 9
The following are known to be causes of hepatitis except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacteria. Hepatitis is primarily caused by viruses (such as Hepatitis A, B, C), toxins (like alcohol or certain medications), and chemicals/drugs. Bacteria do not typically cause hepatitis as it is a viral infection that affects the liver. Therefore, choice C is the exception among the listed causes. Viruses directly target liver cells, toxins can damage the liver, and certain chemicals/drugs can lead to liver inflammation. Hence, bacteria do not play a significant role in causing hepatitis.
Question 5 of 9
Which nursing action is most appropriate for the weak patient with osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ambulate with assistance. Ambulating helps prevent further bone loss and strengthens muscles, important for osteoporosis patients. Bedrest can worsen bone density loss. Encouraging fluids and providing a high-protein diet are important for overall health but do not directly address the weakness associated with osteoporosis.
Question 6 of 9
Wilma knew that James have an adequate respiratory condition if she notices that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically between 12-20 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 18 falls within this range, indicating adequate respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because an oxygen saturation of 91% is below the normal range of 95-100%, suggesting potential respiratory insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as frank blood suction from the tube indicates a serious issue such as bleeding, not adequate respiratory condition. Choice D is also incorrect as the presence of a moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions may indicate a respiratory infection or other respiratory issue, not necessarily adequate respiratory condition.
Question 7 of 9
In addition to antibiotics, which of the ff. recommendations can the nurse make to increase comfort in a patient experiencing sinusitis? Choose all answers that are correct. i. Coughing and deep breathing iv. Room humidifier ii. Sinus irrigation v. Percussion and postural drainage iii. Hot moist packs vi. Semi-fowler’s position
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 2, 4, 5, and 6. 1. Room humidifier (choice 2) helps to keep the air moist, which can ease sinus pressure and discomfort. 2. Hot moist packs (choice 4) can provide relief by reducing congestion and promoting sinus drainage. 3. Percussion and postural drainage (choice 5) can help loosen mucus and improve drainage. 4. Semi-fowler's position (choice 6) can also aid in drainage and reduce sinus pressure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not include all the recommended interventions that can help increase comfort in a patient with sinusitis. Each of the incorrect choices is missing at least one crucial recommendation that is beneficial for managing sinusitis symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
JR is admitted to the medical-surgical unit because of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. What is the hallmark of this syndrome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The hallmark of nephritic syndrome is edema due to proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia. Protein loss in urine causes decreased colloid osmotic pressure, leading to fluid leaking into tissues, causing edema. Osmotic diuresis (A) is unrelated to nephritic syndrome. Hypolipidemia (B) and hyperproteinemia (D) are not characteristic of nephritic syndrome.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenal cortex. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where the adrenal cortex produces too much aldosterone hormone, leading to hypertension. The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, not aldosterone, making option B incorrect. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, not aldosterone, making option C incorrect. Option D is incorrect because the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion in primary hyperaldosteronism.