ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient visiting with family members in the waiting area tells the nurse “I don’t feel good, especially in the stomach.” What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to return to the room, so the nurse can inspect the abdomen. Rationale: 1. Patient safety: By examining the patient's abdomen, the nurse can assess for any signs of distress or potential medical issues. 2. Patient-centered care: It is essential to prioritize the patient's well-being by addressing their concerns promptly and appropriately. 3. Professional responsibility: Nurses are trained to assess and evaluate patient symptoms to provide necessary care and support. Summary: A: Requesting the family to leave does not address the patient's symptoms and may disrupt the patient's support system. C: Asking about bowel movements and offering food may not be appropriate if the patient is experiencing stomach discomfort. D: Offering food without proper assessment may worsen the patient's condition and is not recommended before a proper evaluation.
Question 2 of 9
An unconscious patient is brought to the emergency department. Which of the following assessments should be implemented first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s airway should be assessed first. This is because airway management is the top priority in any emergency situation to ensure the patient can breathe. Without a patent airway, the patient's oxygenation and ventilation will be compromised, leading to serious complications or death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the airway takes precedence over determining the reason for admission, reviewing medications, or assessing past medical history in an unconscious patient. These other assessments are important but not as critical as securing the airway to maintain the patient's breathing and oxygenation.
Question 3 of 9
Three days after admission Ms. CC continued to have frequent stools. Her oral intake of both fluids and solids are poor. Her physician ordered parenteral hyperalimentation. Hyperalimentation solutions are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperosmolar solutions used primarily to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Rationale: 1. Hyperalimentation solutions are designed to provide essential nutrients intravenously. 2. Hyperosmolar solutions have a higher osmolarity compared to body fluids, providing concentrated nutrition. 3. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when the body breaks down more protein than it synthesizes, requiring additional protein intake. 4. Hyperosmolar solutions can provide adequate protein and nutrients to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Summary: A: Hypotonic solutions do not increase osmotic pressure, but rather decrease it. B: Hypertonic solutions are not primarily used for hydration in this context. C: Alkalizing solutions are not the primary purpose of hyperalimentation and do not directly address cellular sweating.
Question 4 of 9
At a public health fair, a nurse discusses the dangers of sun exposure. Prolonged sun exposure has been blamed for which form of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the most dangerous form, while basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. Sun exposure can lead to DNA damage in skin cells, increasing the risk of developing these types of cancers. Therefore, all three choices are correct as they are all linked to sun exposure. The other choices are incorrect because each type of skin cancer mentioned can be caused by prolonged sun exposure, so selecting any one of them individually would not fully capture the scope of the risks associated with sun exposure.
Question 5 of 9
A female client recovers from a serious case of insect bites. What skin related advice must the nurse give to the client and all her family members to prevent the recurrence of the ailment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply insect repellent to clothing and exposed skin. This advice helps prevent insect bites, reducing the risk of recurrence. Insect repellent creates a barrier against insects, hence minimizing the chances of getting bitten. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the prevention of insect bites. Choice A is vague and does not provide a specific preventive measure. Choice C is incorrect as thick woollen clothing may not necessarily prevent insect bites. Choice D, sunscreen lotion, protects against UV rays, not insect bites.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis related to enhancing the patient's urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, which focuses on promoting the patient's health and well-being. The Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination diagnosis indicates the patient's motivation and readiness to improve their urinary elimination abilities, aligning with the concept of health promotion. This type of diagnosis acknowledges the patient's potential for growth and improvement in their health status. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This choice would be more appropriate if the diagnosis focused on potential complications or adverse events related to the patient's urinary elimination abilities. B: Problem focused - This choice would be suitable if the diagnosis identified an existing issue or problem with the patient's urinary elimination abilities that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This choice would be relevant if the diagnosis required collaboration between healthcare providers to manage the patient's urinary elimination abilities effectively.
Question 7 of 9
To return a patient with hyponatremia to normal sodium levels, it is safer to restrict fluid intake than to administer sodium:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Hyponatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low sodium levels in the blood. Step 2: Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilution of sodium in the blood, aiding in correcting hyponatremia. Step 3: Administering sodium can lead to rapid correction, risking osmotic demyelination syndrome. Step 4: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the goal of managing hyponatremia by preventing fluid overload symptoms. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of correcting low sodium levels in hyponatremia.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse has entered a client’s room to find the client diaphoretic (sweat-covered) and shivering, inferring that the client has a fever. How should the nurse best follow up this cue and inference?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure the client’s oral temperature. This is the best follow-up because it directly assesses the client's body temperature, providing objective data to confirm the presence of fever. It is essential to gather accurate information to guide appropriate interventions. Asking a colleague for assistance (B) may not address the immediate need for temperature assessment. Giving the client a clean gown and warm blankets (C) may provide comfort but does not address the need for temperature measurement. Obtaining an order for blood cultures (D) is not the initial priority when the client is showing signs of fever; temperature measurement is the first step in assessing the client's condition.
Question 9 of 9
A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.