ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action is to choose C: Ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement. This is important as the patient's non-verbal cues (facial grimacing) contradict their verbal pain report. By directly addressing the discrepancy, the nurse can gather more accurate information about the patient's pain experience and potentially identify any underlying issues causing the discrepancy. Proceeding to the next patient's room (A) without addressing the discrepancy would neglect the patient's needs. Assuming the patient does not want pain medicine (B) based solely on the verbal report without further assessment is premature. Administering pain medication (D) without clarifying the situation may lead to inappropriate or ineffective treatment. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate initial action to ensure comprehensive and individualized patient care.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse has developed a plan of care with nursing interventions designed to meet specific client outcomes. The outcomes are not met by the time specified in the plan. What should the nurse do now in terms of evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Make recommendations for revising the plan of care. When client outcomes are not met within the specified time frame, the nurse should reassess the plan of care to identify any potential reasons for the lack of progress. By making recommendations for revising the plan of care, the nurse can adjust interventions to better align with the client's needs and facilitate goal achievement. Continuing to follow the written plan of care (choice A) without modification may not address the underlying issues preventing goal attainment. Asking another health care professional to design a plan of care (choice C) may not be necessary if the nurse can assess and revise the current plan. Stating 'goal will be met at a later date' (choice D) does not address the need for immediate action to reassess and modify the plan for better outcomes.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff conditions are more likely to develop in a client who is relatively immobile for the rest of his or her life? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bladder infection. Immobility can lead to urinary stasis, causing bacteria to multiply in the bladder, leading to a higher risk of bladder infections. B: Constipation can also occur due to immobility, but it is not directly related to the urinary system. C: Calculus formation is more related to factors like diet and hydration, not immobility. D: Bladder inflammation can be a result of infection but is not as directly linked to immobility as bladder infections.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is collecting data from a home care client. In addition to information about the client’s health status, what is another observation the nurse should make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Safety of the immediate environment. This is crucial for the client's well-being and can impact their health. The nurse should assess for hazards like loose rugs, clutter, or slippery floors. This ensures a safe living environment for the client. The other choices (A, C, D) are not directly related to the client's immediate safety or well-being. The number of rooms in the house (A) is not as important as ensuring the safety of the environment. The frequency of home visits (C) can be planned later based on the initial assessment. The friendliness of the client and family (D) is important for building rapport but does not address the immediate safety concerns of the client.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of renal failure. He also mentions that he has stomach distress and ha ingested numerous antacid tablets over the past 2 days. His blood pressure is 110/70, his face is flushed, and he is experiencing generalized weakness. Choose the most likely magnesium (Mg ) value.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 11mEq/L. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete excess magnesium, leading to hypermagnesemia. The patient's symptoms of stomach distress and ingesting antacids suggest magnesium intake. A Mg level of 11mEq/L aligns with symptoms like flushed face and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are too low for hypermagnesemia symptoms and would not explain the patient's presentation.
Question 6 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is the surgical removal of the pituitary gland's adenohypophysis. 2. The procedure is used to treat pituitary tumors, which can be benign or malignant, but commonly referred to as pituitary adenomas. 3. Pituitary adenomas may secrete hormones excessively, leading to various endocrine disorders. 4. Hormone replacement therapy is required post-surgery to manage hormonal deficiencies. 5. Therefore, the correct answer is C (Pituitary carcinoma). Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the pituitary gland, which is the primary target of a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy.
Question 7 of 9
Another girl was bitten by a poisonous snake. All of the following are true except
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because exercising the bitten extremity can increase the spread of the venom. Choice B is correct as poisonous snake bites typically leave two fang marks. Choice C is correct as immediate severe pain and swelling are common symptoms of a poisonous snake bite. Choice D is incorrect as a tourniquet should not be used for snake bites as it can lead to complications such as tissue damage and increased risk of infection.
Question 8 of 9
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement (Choice C). This is important because the patient may not accurately express their pain level verbally. By addressing the discrepancy between the patient's verbal report and non-verbal cues, the nurse can gather more information to assess the patient's pain accurately. By directly communicating with the patient, the nurse can ensure that the appropriate interventions are provided. Choice A is incorrect because it disregards the need to address the patient's pain assessment. Choice B assumes the patient's preference without further clarification. Choice D jumps to administering pain medication without fully assessing the situation, which could lead to inappropriate treatment.
Question 9 of 9
A total thyroidectomy is ordered following discovery of a cold nodule. In this case of hyperthyroidism versus malignancy, the nurse anticipates that the patient will have:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A complete thyroidectomy also. In the case of a cold nodule, which indicates potential malignancy, a total thyroidectomy is warranted to remove the entire thyroid gland to prevent the spread of cancer. A partial thyroidectomy, as in choices B and C, would not be sufficient in addressing malignancy. Administering thyroid medication, as in choice D, would not be appropriate for treating malignancy. Therefore, the correct approach is to perform a total thyroidectomy to ensure complete removal of the affected gland and to address both hyperthyroidism and potential malignancy.