ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient understands the common causes of urinary tract infection if he or she states the following, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because drinking lots of water at night actually helps prevent UTIs by flushing out bacteria from the urinary tract. Holding the urge to urinate (Choice A) can increase the risk of UTIs as bacteria can multiply in stagnant urine. Insertion of instruments and catheters (Choice B) can introduce bacteria, leading to infection. Unhygienic cleaning after defecation (Choice D) can also introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, causing UTIs. Therefore, Choice C is the exception as it does not contribute to the common causes of UTIs.
Question 2 of 9
Which neurotransmitter mediates the sympathetic response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.
Question 3 of 9
During a routine check-up, the nurse evaluates a client with rheumatoid arthritis. To assess for the most obvious disease manifestations first, the nurse checks for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Joint abnormalities. In rheumatoid arthritis, joint abnormalities such as swelling, warmth, and tenderness are the hallmark manifestations. Assessing joint abnormalities first is crucial as they are the primary clinical signs of the disease. Muscle weakness (A) is a common symptom but typically occurs later due to joint inflammation and disuse. Painful subcutaneous nodules (B) are present in some cases but are not as common or prominent as joint abnormalities. Gait disturbances (D) may occur as a result of joint damage, but they are secondary to the primary manifestation of joint abnormalities. By prioritizing the assessment of joint abnormalities, the nurse can promptly identify and address the most prevalent disease manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 4 of 9
A patient understands the common causes of urinary tract infection if he or she states the following, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because drinking lots of water at night actually helps prevent UTIs by flushing out bacteria from the urinary tract. Holding the urge to urinate (Choice A) can increase the risk of UTIs as bacteria can multiply in stagnant urine. Insertion of instruments and catheters (Choice B) can introduce bacteria, leading to infection. Unhygienic cleaning after defecation (Choice D) can also introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, causing UTIs. Therefore, Choice C is the exception as it does not contribute to the common causes of UTIs.
Question 5 of 9
What should be included in the teaching plan to young adults about the spread of AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because educating young adults about the rise in heterosexual transmission of HIV is crucial to prevent the spread of AIDS. This information helps them understand the importance of safe sex practices and awareness of risks. Choice B is incorrect as HIV transmission in children is not primarily due to sexual abuse. Choice C is also incorrect as herpes zoster is not a form of the HIV virus. Choice D is incorrect as transmission by IV drug users is not prominent with sterile equipment use. Focusing on the rise in heterosexual transmission is key in teaching young adults about AIDS prevention.
Question 6 of 9
A charge nurse is reviewing outcome statements using the SMART approach. Which patient outcome statement will the charge nurse praise to the new nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it follows the SMART approach: Specific (monitor heart rhythm), Measurable (continuously this shift), Achievable (feed self at all mealtimes), Relevant (shortness of breath), and Time-bound (today). Choice A lacks specificity and measurability. Choice C focuses on the nurse's action, not patient outcomes. Choice D lacks specificity and measurability, focusing on the nurse's actions rather than patient outcomes.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The client wears a watch and wedding band. This is because metal objects such as watches and jewelry can be hazardous during an MRI scan due to the strong magnetic field, leading to potential movement or heating of the metal objects, causing harm to the client. A: The client lies still - This is important for obtaining clear images during an MRI scan and does not pose a threat to the client. C: The client asks questions - Asking questions during an MRI scan does not pose a direct threat to the client's safety. D: The client hears thumping sounds - Thumping sounds are a normal part of the MRI scan and do not pose a threat to the client's safety.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse teaches a client newly diagnosed with diabetes how to administer insulin. What type of nursing intervention is this?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Independent intervention) Rationale: 1. Independent interventions are actions that nurses can initiate without a doctor's order. 2. Teaching a client how to administer insulin falls under the scope of nursing practice. 3. Nurses have the knowledge and authority to educate clients on self-care management. 4. This intervention does not require collaboration with other healthcare providers. Summary: B: Dependent interventions require a doctor's order. C: Interdependent interventions involve collaboration with other healthcare providers. D: Collaborative interventions involve working with other healthcare professionals.
Question 9 of 9
Blood cells are formed in the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone marrow. Blood cells are primarily formed in the bone marrow through a process called hematopoiesis. The bone marrow contains stem cells that differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Arterioles are small blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, not involved in blood cell formation. Lymphoid tissue plays a role in immune function but not in blood cell production. Muscle tissue is primarily responsible for movement and does not have a role in blood cell formation. Therefore, the bone marrow is the correct answer as it is the main site of blood cell production in the body.