ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient understands the common causes of urinary tract infection if he or she states the following, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because drinking lots of water at night actually helps prevent UTIs by flushing out bacteria from the urinary tract. Holding the urge to urinate (Choice A) can increase the risk of UTIs as bacteria can multiply in stagnant urine. Insertion of instruments and catheters (Choice B) can introduce bacteria, leading to infection. Unhygienic cleaning after defecation (Choice D) can also introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, causing UTIs. Therefore, Choice C is the exception as it does not contribute to the common causes of UTIs.
Question 2 of 5
Mr. Ramos consulted at the health center for follow up after one month of Isoniazid and Rifampicin. Which diagnostic test will have an abnormal result if the client is taking these medications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: liver function tests. Isoniazid and Rifampicin are known to potentially cause hepatotoxicity, leading to abnormal liver function test results. Liver function tests measure enzymes and proteins that indicate liver health. Gallbladder studies (A), thyroid function tests (B), and blood sugar levels (D) are not directly affected by these medications and would not show abnormal results due to their use.
Question 3 of 5
As the surgical incision is closed, who are the personnel in-charge in counting the needles, sponges, and instruments?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - the circulating and scrub nurse first assistant. The circulating nurse is responsible for counting needles, sponges, and instruments during the closing of the surgical incision to ensure nothing is left inside the patient. The scrub nurse first assistant also plays a crucial role in this process by assisting in the counting and keeping track of the items used during the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because the surgeon and anesthesiologist (A) are not typically involved in counting items during the surgical closure, the surgeon and the registered (B) may not have the necessary training for accurate counting, and the anesthesiologist and anesthetist (D) are not directly involved in the surgical closing process.
Question 4 of 5
Alex is taking carbamazepine (tegretol) for seizure disorder. He should be monitored for which of the following potential complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: leukocytosis. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to leukocytosis. Monitoring for elevated white blood cell count is essential to detect this potential complication early. A: Adult respiratory distress syndrome is not a common complication of carbamazepine. B: Elevated levels of phenytoin is not a direct complication of carbamazepine use. C: Diplopia is a common side effect of carbamazepine, not a potential complication like leukocytosis.
Question 5 of 5
. During the first 24 hours after a client is diagnosed with Addisonian crisis, which of the following should the nurse perform frequently?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, assess vital signs, as it is crucial to monitor the client's hemodynamic stability and response to treatment during the critical initial 24 hours of Addisonian crisis. Vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate provide valuable information about the client's condition and response to therapy. Weighing the client (choice A) and testing urine for ketones (choice C) may be important but not as immediately critical as monitoring vital signs. Administering oral hydrocortisone (choice B) is essential for treatment but does not require frequent administration within the first 24 hours.