ATI RN
Questions on Infertility Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation reports mild bloating and abdominal discomfort. What is the nurse's appropriate response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bloating and abdominal discomfort can be early signs of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, a serious condition that requires monitoring. Choice B is incorrect as these symptoms can indeed be related to ovarian stimulation. Choice C is incorrect as abdominal discomfort does not guarantee successful ovulation. Choice D is incorrect as these symptoms do not necessarily suggest treatment ineffectiveness. Monitoring and assessing for signs of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are crucial in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A patient and her husband request to view the results of their infant's karyotype. An aneuploidy was noted. The nurse understands the results to indicate what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: A karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's chromosomes. An aneuploidy indicates an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result in genetic disorders such as Down syndrome. A karyotype shows the number, size, and shape of chromosomes, so an abnormal number of chromosomes on the karyogram is the correct interpretation. Summary of Other Choices: B: Translocations involve the movement of genetic material between chromosomes, not an abnormal number of chromosomes. C: Chromosomal breaks would not typically result in an aneuploidy but rather structural abnormalities. D: Duplication of chromosomes to total 46 would not lead to aneuploidy but rather a normal chromosome count.
Question 3 of 5
Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy. B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility. C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because more frequent ultrasounds are necessary to monitor the progression of the pregnancy in a patient with an incompetent cervix. This allows healthcare providers to assess the cervix's condition and the risk of preterm labor. A: Bed rest is not the primary treatment for an incompetent cervix as it does not address the underlying issue. B: A wait and see approach may lead to missed opportunities for preventive interventions. C: Preparation for cerclage at 32 weeks is too late as cerclage is typically done earlier to provide support to the cervix.
Question 5 of 5
A client is admitted to the labor and birthing suite in early labor. On review of her prenatal history, the nurse determines that the client's pelvic shape as identified in the antepartum notes is the most favorable one for a vaginal birth. Which pelvic shape would the nurse have noted?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The gynecoid pelvic shape is the most favorable for vaginal birth due to its optimal dimensions and orientation for the passage of the fetus. The anthropoid pelvis is also favorable for vaginal birth, but it is not the most favorable shape. The android pelvis and platypelloid pelvis are less favorable for vaginal birth, with the android pelvis having slow descent of the fetal head and the platypelloid pelvis often requiring cesarean birth.