ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient undergoing mechanical ventilation in the ICU develops ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) caused by multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) caused by multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs) is to administer combination antibiotic therapy targeting the specific resistant pathogens identified in the patient's culture results. MDROs are often resistant to multiple antibiotics, so combination therapy is required to maximize the chances of effectively treating the infection. Identifying the specific pathogens causing the VAP through cultures is crucial in tailoring the antibiotic therapy to target these organisms effectively. Implementing appropriate antibiotic therapy promptly is essential to improve outcomes and prevent further complications in patients with VAP caused by MDROs. Option A is the priority intervention in this case to address the multidrug-resistant nature of the infection and provide targeted treatment for the patient.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse suspects that a client has multiple myeloma based on the client's major presenting symptom and the analysis of laboratory results. What classic manifestation for multiple myeloma does the nurse assess for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bone pain in the back of the ribs is a classic manifestation of multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that primarily affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to weakened bones and bone pain. Patients with multiple myeloma often experience bone pain in areas such as the ribs, spine, and pelvis. The bone pain is typically persistent and worsens with movement or pressure. Additionally, other common symptoms of multiple myeloma include anemia, kidney damage, recurrent infections, and elevated calcium levels in the blood.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following actions is indicated in the management of a patient with an open chest wound (sucking chest wound)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An open chest wound, also known as a sucking chest wound, can lead to a collapsed lung and respiratory distress. Immediate management involves sealing the wound to prevent air from entering the pleural space and further compromising the patient's respiratory function. Applying a sterile dressing over the wound helps to prevent contamination and occluding the wound with an airtight covering, such as an occlusive dressing, can effectively reduce the risk of a tension pneumothorax, a serious complication that can arise from a sucking chest wound. These interventions help to stabilize the patient's condition and improve the chances of a successful recovery. Administering supplemental oxygen, though beneficial, would be secondary to the primary management of sealing the chest wound. Providing emotional support is important but addressing the physical emergency takes precedence. Elevating the patient's legs would not be appropriate in managing an open chest wound.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is aware that a major difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non- Hodgkin's lymphoma is that:_________________
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the major differences between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is that Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable, while non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is typically not curable. Hodgkin's lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are not found in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Additionally, Hodgkin's lymphoma tends to spread in a more orderly and predictable manner through the lymph nodes, making it easier to treat and potentially cure with the appropriate combination of chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and stem cell transplant. On the other hand, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is a diverse group of lymphomas that can vary greatly in presentation, behavior, and response to treatment, with some subtypes being more aggressive and resistant to treatment. Therefore, the potential for cure is higher in Hodgkin's lymphoma compared to non-Hodgkin's lymph
Question 5 of 9
Therapeutic treatment for Mrs. Juan should be directed towards helping her to ______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mrs. Juan's therapeutic treatment should focus on redirecting her energy into activities that involve helping others. By engaging in altruistic activities, Mrs. Juan can shift her focus away from her fears and anxieties towards something positive and fulfilling. This approach can help her to find purpose and meaning outside of her own concerns, fostering a sense of well-being and satisfaction. Additionally, helping others can provide Mrs. Juan with a sense of accomplishment and self-worth, ultimately contributing to her overall mental health and emotional resilience.
Question 6 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to sepsis. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's renal function?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to sepsis in the ICU, the healthcare team should prioritize initiating continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) for renal replacement therapy. CVVH is a form of continuous renal replacement therapy that helps support renal function by removing waste products, excess fluids, and electrolytes from the blood while providing hemodynamic stability. This intervention is crucial in managing fluid overload, electrolyte disturbances, and uremia associated with AKI in critically ill patients. It can also help improve overall outcomes and prevent further complications related to renal dysfunction in this setting. Administering diuretics, implementing fluid restriction, or performing a renal biopsy may not directly address the acute renal failure and may not provide the necessary renal support needed in this urgent situation.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is presenting with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest, which is characteristic of stable angina. Additionally, ST-segment depression on ECG is a common finding in patients with stable angina. Stable angina is typically caused by coronary artery disease, which leads to partial obstruction of the coronary arteries resulting in inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle during periods of increased demand (such as exertion). The chest pain is usually predictable and reproducible, occurring with similar intensity and duration during episodes of exertion. Rest or nitroglycerin can help relieve the symptoms by increasing coronary blood flow. It is important to differentiate stable angina from unstable angina and acute myocardial infarction, which have different management and prognostic implications.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from sub-Saharan Africa are consistent with malaria. Intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites observed on blood smear examination are characteristic of Plasmodium species, particularly Plasmodium falciparum, which is the most common and deadliest species causing malaria in sub-Saharan Africa. Plasmodium falciparum can lead to severe complications, such as cerebral malaria, if not promptly treated. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not malaria. Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for Lyme disease, which typically presents with a different set of symptoms like erythema migrans rash. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, not malaria.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Vince is going to refer patient to secondary health facility. Which of the following is an example of secondary health facility?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A district hospital is an example of a secondary health facility. Secondary health facilities are the intermediate level of healthcare services, providing a higher level of care compared to primary health facilities like rural health units and barangay health stations. District hospitals typically offer more specialized medical services, diagnostic facilities, and inpatient care that are not available at lower-level health facilities. When Nurse Vince refers a patient to a district hospital, it means that the patient requires more extensive and specialized medical care beyond what can be provided at the primary level of care.