ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient that had a stroke is experiencing memory loss and impaired learning capacity. In which lobe does the nurse determine that brain damage has MOST likely occurred?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Temporal lobe. Memory and learning are primarily associated with the temporal lobe, specifically the hippocampus. Damage to this area due to stroke can lead to memory loss and impaired learning capacity. Frontal lobe (A) is involved in decision-making and problem-solving. Parietal lobe (B) is responsible for sensory processing. Occipital lobe (C) is related to visual processing. Therefore, the temporal lobe is the most likely site of brain damage in this scenario based on the symptoms presented.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. Which nursing intervention is essential for preventing infection in the foot ulcer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C is correct as keeping the ulcer covered with a sterile dressing provides a barrier against pathogens, promoting wound healing and preventing infection. A (topical antibiotics) can lead to resistance and disrupt normal flora. B (daily wound debridement) may introduce pathogens and delay healing. D (oral antibiotics prophylactically) is not recommended without evidence of infection.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,
Question 4 of 9
What type of sampling wills Nurse Sandy adopts 11 when every third (3rd) patients with MI are selected after a random start?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Systematic sampling. Nurse Sandy is adopting systematic sampling by selecting every third patient with MI after a random start. This method ensures equal chance of selection for each patient and maintains randomness. In contrast, simple random sampling (A) entails each patient having an equal chance of being selected independently. Stratified sampling (B) divides patients into groups based on certain characteristics, which is not the case here. Cluster sampling (D) involves grouping patients and selecting entire groups, which is different from the individual selection in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
1HIV transmission from mother to infant occur at post natal period during ________
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breastfeeding. HIV transmission from mother to infant can occur through breast milk due to the presence of the virus in breast milk. Other choices such as A: Bathing, B: Bottlefeeding, and C: Washing of vagina do not involve direct contact with potentially infected body fluids like breast milk, making them less likely to transmit the virus. Breastfeeding is a well-documented mode of HIV transmission from mother to infant, hence it is the correct choice in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) for secondary prevention of thrombotic events. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely during clopidogrel therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.
Question 7 of 9
You should check the patient for suspect disturbed thought processes related to depressed metabolism and altered cardiovascular and respiratory status. What is the rationale for orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provides reality orientation to patient. Orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events helps them stay connected to reality and improves their awareness of their surroundings. This is crucial in assessing their cognitive functioning and ensuring they are grounded in the present moment. By providing reality orientation, healthcare providers can better understand the patient's current mental state and address any potential confusion or disorientation. This approach aids in establishing a therapeutic environment and enhances the patient's overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D do not capture the essence of reality orientation and its significance in maintaining the patient's mental clarity and connection to the present moment.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with advanced cancer develops malignant bowel obstruction, resulting in abdominal pain and distension. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.