A patient tells a nurse, “My doctor thinks my problem may lie with the neurotransmitters in my brain. Does that mean I have a serious problem?” How should the nurse reply to the patient’s question about the seriousness of the problem?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it acknowledges the patient's concern and invites further discussion to clarify the doctor's explanation. By exploring what the doctor has told the patient, the nurse can provide accurate information and address any misconceptions, helping the patient understand the situation better. Choice B jumps to conclusions about mental disorders without assessing the patient's actual situation. Choice C oversimplifies the treatment of neurotransmitter issues, which may vary in severity. Choice D assumes the patient's perception without addressing the underlying concerns. Overall, choice A promotes open communication and patient-centered care.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Primary hypertension is a chronic condition. 2. Drug therapy for primary hypertension aims to control blood pressure long-term. 3. Lifestyle changes may help but often medication is needed. 4. Discontinuing medication can lead to uncontrolled hypertension. 5. Therefore, therapy for high blood pressure is usually lifelong. Summary: A: Incorrect, as 3 months is too short for chronic hypertension management. B: Incorrect, as a year may not be sufficient for long-term control. C: Incorrect, as symptom disappearance doesn't indicate resolved hypertension. D: Correct, as lifelong therapy is often necessary for primary hypertension.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: the patient’s warfarin dose is at therapeutic levels. An INR level of 2.5 is within the target range for patients on anticoagulant therapy, indicating that the warfarin dose is effective in preventing clot formation. A: Incorrect. An INR of 2.5 is considered therapeutic, so the patient is receiving enough warfarin. C: Incorrect. INR does not reflect heparin levels, so the intravenous heparin dose cannot be determined from this value. D: Incorrect. Similar to choice C, INR does not reflect heparin levels, so the status of the intravenous heparin dose cannot be determined.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin. Rifampin induces hepatic enzymes, which can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, leading to decreased contraceptive efficacy. This can result in breakthrough bleeding and potential contraceptive failure. It is important to advise the patient to use additional non-hormonal contraceptive methods while on rifampin therapy to prevent unintended pregnancy. Incorrect answer explanations: A: Women do not have a high risk for thrombophlebitis while on rifampin. Rifampin is not known to directly increase the risk of thrombophlebitis. B: A higher dose of rifampin is not necessary because of the contraceptive. Rifampin does not interact with oral contraceptives in a way that requires a higher dose. D: The incidence of adverse effects is not necessarily greater if the two drugs are taken together. Adverse effects are more related to individual drug reactions rather than a

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Conjugation involves attaching a molecule to a drug to increase its solubility for elimination. Hydrolysis is not a conjugation process but rather a breakdown of molecules by water. Glucuronidation, sulfation, and methylation are all types of conjugation reactions. Glucuronidation adds a glucuronic acid, sulfation adds a sulfate group, and methylation adds a methyl group to the drug. So, C is the correct answer as it does not involve drug conjugation.