ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drug Safety Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient taking medication for depression states, “I need to stop taking my medication because it blurs my vision, and I’m making mistakes when I paint jewelry by hand.” Which response by a nurse would be most therapeutic?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is the most therapeutic response because it acknowledges the patient's concern about blurred vision and offers a practical solution to address it. By reminding the patient that blurred vision is a known side effect that will resolve shortly and suggesting the use of a magnifying glass as a temporary aid, the nurse validates the patient's experience and provides support. This response promotes open communication, reassures the patient, and empowers them to manage the side effect effectively. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Recommending ECT treatments without exploring alternative solutions or addressing the patient's concerns about medication side effects is not therapeutic. C: Suggesting a medication change without first addressing the current side effect and exploring other options does not address the patient's immediate issue. D: Recommending a sick leave as the first solution without exploring less disruptive options or addressing the patient's concerns is not therapeutic.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who started taking orlistat (Xenical) 1 month ago calls the clinic to report some 'embarrassing' adverse effects. She tells the nurse that she has had episodes of 'not being able to control my bowel movements.' Which statement is true about this situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because orlistat works by inhibiting fat absorption. If the patient consumes high-fat meals, it can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects like fecal incontinence. Therefore, restricting fat intake to less than 30% can help reduce these adverse effects without compromising the drug's efficacy. Choice A is incorrect because these adverse effects are not expected to diminish on their own. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the drug abruptly may not be necessary; rather, adjusting fat intake is a better approach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fat intake would worsen the gastrointestinal side effects.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) and a loop diuretic daily. When the nurse enters the room with the morning medications, the patient states, 'I am seeing a funny yellow color around the lights.' What is the nurse’s next action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Recognize the patient's complaint of seeing a yellow color as a common symptom of digoxin toxicity. Step 2: Assess the patient for other symptoms of digoxin toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, or vision changes. Step 3: Hold the digoxin dose and notify the healthcare provider if digoxin toxicity is suspected. Step 4: Monitor the patient closely for any worsening symptoms. Step 5: Document the assessment findings and actions taken. Summary of other choices: B: Withholding the diuretic does not address the potential digoxin toxicity. C: Administering both medications together could worsen the toxicity. D: Delaying action could lead to serious consequences of digoxin toxicity.
Question 4 of 5
When reviewing the mechanisms of action of diuretics, the nurse knows that which statement is true about loop diuretics?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Loop diuretics have a rapid onset of action and cause rapid diuresis. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism results in a quick onset of action, typically within 30 minutes of administration, and a rapid diuretic effect. Choice A is incorrect because loop diuretics do not inhibit aldosterone; they primarily target sodium reabsorption. Choice B is incorrect as the duration of diuretic effect varies but is generally shorter than 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as loop diuretics can still be effective even with reduced creatinine clearance levels.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for severe iron-deficiency anemia. Today, the provider changed the order to darbepoetin (Aranesp). The patient questions the nurse, “What is the difference in these drugs?” Which response by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Aranesp is a longer-acting form, so you will receive fewer injections.” Rationale: 1. Darbepoetin (Aranesp) is a longer-acting form of erythropoietin compared to epoetin alfa (Epogen). 2. Due to its extended half-life, Aranesp requires less frequent dosing, leading to fewer injections for the patient. 3. This is beneficial for patient compliance and convenience, as they don't have to undergo frequent injections. 4. Choice A is incorrect because there is a difference between the two drugs in terms of pharmacokinetics. 5. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of action is not the primary difference between the two drugs. 6. Choice C is incorrect because Aranesp, like Epogen, is administered via injections, not orally.