ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient suffering from syphilis was prescribed a drug the action of which based upon disturbed generation of murein leading to death of the causative agent. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzylpenicillin sodium salt. Benzylpenicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of bacterial cell walls by disrupting the formation of murein (peptidoglycan), leading to bacterial cell death. This mechanism specifically targets the causative agent of syphilis, Treponema pallidum. - Choice B: Bijochinol is not a known drug used to treat syphilis. - Choice C: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication and is not the first-line treatment for syphilis. - Choice D: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that interferes with bacterial protein synthesis and is commonly used to treat other infections but is not the preferred treatment for syphilis.
Question 2 of 9
The most common urinary tract pathogen is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E.coli is the most common urinary tract pathogen due to its ability to adhere to and infect the urinary tract epithelium. It accounts for approximately 80-85% of urinary tract infections. It possesses specific virulence factors that enable it to colonize and cause infection in the urinary tract. Proteus mirabilis (A) is known for causing complicated UTIs, but it is less common than E.coli. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is not a common urinary pathogen. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, rather than community-acquired urinary tract infections.
Question 3 of 9
A 52-year-old patient has the following diagnosis: systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs. What drug should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. It is the drug of choice for treating systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Metronidazole is well-absorbed, reaches therapeutic levels in the intestines, liver, and lungs, making it effective in treating the multi-organ involvement in this case. Choice B: Quiniofone is not a recommended treatment for amebiasis. Choice C: Tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for systemic amebiasis. Choice D: Quingamine is not a recognized drug for treating amebiasis.
Question 4 of 9
Numerous antibodies can be prepared against one antigen, but each binds to unique epitope. How is this antibodies diversity generated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antibody diversity is generated by rearrangements of DNA encoding variable regions of heavy and light chains (choice A) and by the combination of different heavy and light chains that form the antigen binding site (choice B). Step 1: DNA rearrangements create different variable regions in heavy and light chains. Step 2: Combination of different heavy and light chains leads to unique antigen binding sites. Step 3: This diversity allows antibodies to bind to different epitopes on the same antigen. Step 4: Choice C is incorrect as antibodies do not physically change shape to bind different epitopes.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum stained with Gram's method, revealing purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium appears as purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends on Gram staining. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. It is encapsulated and has a lancet-shaped appearance, which is characteristic of the pointed ends seen in the staining. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears as clusters of gram-positive cocci, not diplococci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a gram-negative rod, not a diplococci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a gram-negative diplococci but typically lacks the pointed ends seen in the staining of S. pneumoniae.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Vibrio cholerae is a bacterium known to cause cholera, a foodborne illness transmitted through contaminated water. Step 2: Cholera outbreaks are often linked to unsanitary water sources, making Vibrio cholerae the correct choice. Step 3: Clostridium difficile causes gastrointestinal infections, not typically associated with contaminated water. Step 4: Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, a respiratory disease, not related to foodborne illnesses. Step 5: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted bacterium, not linked to foodborne illnesses from contaminated water.
Question 7 of 9
Plasmodium is a type of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: slime mold. Plasmodium is a type of slime mold, specifically a parasitic protist that causes malaria in humans. Slime molds are a group of organisms that share characteristics of both fungi and protozoa. Plasmodium does not belong to the other categories listed: A) protozoan refers to a broad category of single-celled eukaryotic organisms, C) spirochetes are a type of bacteria, and D) helminths are parasitic worms. Therefore, the correct classification for Plasmodium is slime mold.
Question 8 of 9
The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Extracellular. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the blood outside of cells, preventing the formation of blood clots. It does not directly affect cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular processes. By targeting extracellular factors, heparin effectively reduces the ability of blood to clot, making it an effective anticoagulant. The other choices are incorrect because heparin does not act on cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular sites in the body to decrease blood clotting.
Question 9 of 9
Characteristic features of infectious process:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Infectious process triggers an immune response to fight off the invading pathogen. 2. The immune response can lead to inflammation, fever, and production of antibodies. 3. Hypersensitivity reactions can also occur in response to the infection. 4. Options A, B, and C are not defining features of the infectious process. Summary: Option D is correct because an infectious process typically leads to an immune response and possibly hypersensitivity reactions. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to the immune response or hypersensitivity reactions in the context of an infectious process.