A patient suffering from syphilis was prescribed a drug the action of which based upon disturbed generation of murein leading to death of the causative agent. What drug is it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzylpenicillin sodium salt. Benzylpenicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of bacterial cell walls by disrupting the formation of murein (peptidoglycan), leading to bacterial cell death. This mechanism specifically targets the causative agent of syphilis, Treponema pallidum. - Choice B: Bijochinol is not a known drug used to treat syphilis. - Choice C: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication and is not the first-line treatment for syphilis. - Choice D: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that interferes with bacterial protein synthesis and is commonly used to treat other infections but is not the preferred treatment for syphilis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is the likely causative agent of the patient's symptoms based on the presentation of dysuria and purulent discharge, which are classic signs of gonorrhea. Gram-negative diplococci are characteristic of Neisseria species. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted pathogen commonly associated with urethral infections. Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Proteus mirabilis are not typically associated with urethral discharge and are not Gram-negative diplococci.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." E. coli, P. aeruginosa, and S. aureus are all known to cause urinary tract infections. E. coli is the most common causative agent due to its presence in the gut. P. aeruginosa and S. aureus can also infect the urinary tract, although less frequently. Therefore, all three bacteria are potential pathogens for urinary tract infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E.coli is the most common urinary tract pathogen due to its ability to adhere to and infect the urinary tract epithelium. It accounts for approximately 80-85% of urinary tract infections. It possesses specific virulence factors that enable it to colonize and cause infection in the urinary tract. Proteus mirabilis (A) is known for causing complicated UTIs, but it is less common than E.coli. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is not a common urinary pathogen. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, rather than community-acquired urinary tract infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Understand haematogenic spread means bacteria traveling through blood. Step 2: Urinary tract infections typically occur due to bacteria entering through urethra, not via blood. Step 3: Choice A states bacterial UTIs are usually after haematogenic spread, which is incorrect. Step 4: Therefore, Choice A is NOT true for UTIs. Summary: B, C, and D are incorrect as they align with typical characteristics of UTIs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mesosomes. Mesosomes are infoldings of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane that play a role in cell division and respiration. This structure is not found in eukaryotic cells. Cristae (A) are infoldings of the mitochondrial inner membrane in eukaryotic cells. Granum (B) refers to stacks of thylakoid membranes in chloroplasts. Flagella (C) are whip-like structures used for movement and are not related to cytoplasmic membrane invaginations. Therefore, the correct answer is D as mesosomes are unique to prokaryotic cells and are involved in various cellular processes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, chromoblastomycosis. This is a chronic localized subcutaneous infection caused by certain fungi, resulting in verrucoid lesions on the skin. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Candidiasis is a superficial fungal infection, not characterized by verrucoid lesions. B: Leprosy is a systemic bacterial infection, not localized to the skin with verrucoid lesions. C: Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, presenting as a painful rash with blisters, not verrucoid lesions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Koch's postulate states that a microorganism must be isolated in pure culture, grown in a laboratory setting, and then inoculated into animals to reproduce the same disease seen in the original host. This step demonstrates a direct cause-and-effect relationship between the isolated microorganism and the disease. Choice A is incorrect because not all cases of a disease may have the same microorganism present. Choice B is incorrect as isolating the microorganism alone does not prove its pathogenicity. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the need for experimental reproduction of the disease in a new host.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that typically has a greenish hue on MacConkey agar due to its ability to ferment lactose, producing acid that changes the pH indicator to green. E. coli is a common cause of diarrhea, particularly in cases of traveler's diarrhea. Salmonella (B), Shigella (C), and Klebsiella (D) are also Gram-negative rods but do not typically show a greenish hue on MacConkey agar and are less commonly associated with causing diarrhea compared to E. coli.