ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her"Adam's apple" that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that reassures the nurse that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump (nodule):
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: the lump is mobile and not hard. A cancerous thyroid nodule is typically fixed and hard, whereas a noncancerous nodule is more likely to be mobile and soft. This characteristic suggests it may be a benign condition such as a thyroid cyst rather than a malignant tumor. The other choices are incorrect because A: tenderness does not necessarily indicate benignity or malignancy, C: disappearance when smiling is more related to a salivary gland issue, and D: hardness and fixation are more indicative of a potentially cancerous nodule.
Question 2 of 9
What should be the first step in managing a client with suspected spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step is to immobilize the spine (A) in a suspected spinal cord injury to prevent further damage. This helps to stabilize the spine and prevent any potential movement that could worsen the injury. Providing pain relief (B) should come after immobilization. Assessing for signs of spinal shock (C) is important but comes after immobilization. Placing the client in a supine position (D) can be part of immobilization but is not the first step.
Question 3 of 9
During an interview, the nurse notices that the patient is avoiding eye contact. What would be the best action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking open-ended questions helps the patient express their feelings without feeling pressured. This approach allows the patient to share at their own pace and comfort level. Choice A may make the patient feel uncomfortable or pressured. Choice B may not address the underlying issue of the patient's avoidance of eye contact. Choice D is more direct and may not be effective if the patient is not ready to discuss their emotions. Ultimately, using open-ended questions promotes a safe and supportive environment for the patient to open up willingly.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following factors should a nurse consider when assessing a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient's age and mobility. Age and mobility are key factors in pressure ulcer development as elderly and immobile patients are at higher risk due to decreased circulation and pressure on skin. Family medical history (B) is not directly linked to pressure ulcers. Frequency of hospital visits (C) is not a determining factor, and patient's education level (D) does not directly impact pressure ulcer risk. In summary, assessing age and mobility helps identify high-risk patients for developing pressure ulcers.
Question 5 of 9
What instructions should the nurse give to a client who will undergo mammography?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not use underarm deodorant. This instruction is important because deodorant can interfere with the imaging results by causing artifacts on the mammogram images. Using deodorant can lead to false positives or false negatives, affecting the accuracy of the test results. Choice A is incorrect because using underarm deodorant can negatively impact the mammogram results. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before a mammogram. Choice D is also incorrect as having a friend drive you home is not a necessary instruction for a mammography appointment.
Question 6 of 9
A 45-year-old man arrives at the clinic and tells the nurse that he has been experiencing severe chest pain. Upon assessment, the nurse notes that his pain radiates to his left arm. The nurse's priority action would be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess vital signs and oxygen saturation levels. This is the priority action because the patient's symptoms suggest a possible cardiac event. Assessing vital signs and oxygen saturation levels can provide crucial information on the patient's condition and help determine the urgency of the situation. Administering pain medication (choice A) should not be done before assessing the patient's vital signs. Having the patient walk around (choice C) could worsen the situation if it is indeed a cardiac event. Ordering an EKG (choice D) is important but should come after assessing vital signs to guide further evaluation and treatment.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with heart failure about managing their condition. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I can stop taking my medication if I feel fine." This statement indicates a misunderstanding of the importance of medication adherence in managing heart failure. Here's the rationale: 1. Patients with heart failure often require lifelong medication to control symptoms and prevent complications. 2. Stopping medication abruptly can lead to worsening of heart failure symptoms and potential health risks. 3. Monitoring for symptoms is essential, but it does not replace the need for consistent medication use. Other choices are incorrect because: A is correct as daily medication adherence is crucial. B is correct as reducing sodium intake helps manage fluid retention in heart failure. D is correct as daily weight monitoring helps detect fluid retention early.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.
Question 9 of 9
What is the first priority for a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer corticosteroids. In a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction, the first priority is to address potential inflammation in the myocardium. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and stabilize the myocardium, which is crucial in preventing further damage post-myocardial infarction. Administering nitroglycerin (A) is important for vasodilation, but it is typically used after corticosteroids. Morphine (B) and analgesics (C) may provide pain relief but do not address the underlying inflammation. Administering corticosteroids is the most appropriate first step to manage myocardial inflammation and protect the heart tissue.