ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient’s vital signs are pulse 87, respirations 24, BP of 128/64 mm Hg, and cardiac output is 4.7 L/min. The patient’s stroke volume is ______ mL. (Round to the nearest whole number.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The stroke volume is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the heart rate. Given the cardiac output of 4.7 L/min and a heart rate of 87 bpm, the stroke volume is 54 mL (4700 mL/87 bpm ≈ 54 mL). Therefore, choice A (54) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated stroke volume based on the provided cardiac output and heart rate.
Question 2 of 9
Assuming each of these patients was discharged from the hospital, which older adult patient is at greatest risk for decreased functional status and quality of life?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because this patient had a complex surgery with complications, requiring long-term care and loss of a significant other, which can impact their emotional well-being and support system. This can lead to decreased functional status and quality of life. Choice B is incorrect as the patient has support from a spouse and manages health care independently, indicating a good support system. Choice C is incorrect as the patient is cognitively intact and social, which suggests a good quality of life. Choice D is incorrect as the patient had a less complex procedure, well-managed diabetes, and was living independently, which indicates a lower risk for decreased functional status and quality of life compared to choice A.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern characterized by periods of apnea followed by deep and rapid breathing. The nurse should document this pattern accurately. Option A is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated. Option B may worsen the respiratory pattern. Option C is not specifically related to addressing the breathing pattern.
Question 4 of 9
A normal urine output is considered to be
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (1 to 2 L/day) because the average adult typically produces 1 to 2 liters of urine per day. This range is considered normal for maintaining proper hydration and eliminating waste products. Choice A (80 to 125 mL/min) is incorrect as it represents the rate of urine production per minute, which is not commonly used to measure daily urine output. Choice B (180 L/day) is unrealistic and far exceeds the normal range for urine output. Choice C (80 mL/min) is too low for daily urine output and would not be sufficient for adequate waste elimination.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 48-year-old patient who is intubated and on a ventilator following extensive abdominal surgery. Although the patient is respo nsive, the nurse is not able to read the patient’s lips as the patient attempts to mouth the words. Which of the following assessment tools would be the most appropriate for the nu rse to use when assessing the patient’s pain level? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The FACES scale. This scale uses facial expressions to assess pain, making it suitable for a patient who is unable to verbalize. The nurse can show the patient a series of faces depicting varying levels of pain and ask them to point to the one that best represents their pain level. This method is non-verbal and easy for patients to understand. The other choices are incorrect: B: The Pain Intensity Scale requires the patient to rate their pain on a numerical scale, which may be difficult for a non-verbal patient. C: The PQRST method is a mnemonic for assessing pain characteristics (provocation, quality, region, severity, timing), but it requires patient communication. D: The Visual Analogue Scale involves marking a point on a line to indicate pain intensity, which is not suitable for a non-verbal patient.
Question 6 of 9
A family member approaches the nurse caring for their gra vely ill son and states, “We want to donate our son’s organs.” What is the best action by the nu rse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the organ procurement organization (OPO). This is the best action because the OPO is responsible for coordinating organ donation and transplantation. By involving the OPO, the nurse ensures that the donation process is handled appropriately and ethically. Choice A: Arranging a multidisciplinary meeting with physicians may be necessary but should not be the first step in this situation. Choice B: Consulting the hospital’s ethics committee may be helpful, but the immediate priority is to involve the OPO to facilitate organ donation. Choice D: Obtaining family consent to withdraw life support is not the nurse’s role in this situation. The focus should be on organ donation to honor the family's wishes.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient in the final stages of dying. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide emotional support and comfort measures. In the final stages of dying, the focus shifts from curative treatment to providing comfort and dignity. Emotional support helps alleviate anxiety and fear, promoting a peaceful transition. Comfort measures like pain management improve quality of life. Encouraging the patient to eat may be futile as the body shuts down. Performing frequent assessments for recovery signs is not appropriate in this situation. Implementing aggressive interventions could go against the patient's wishes for a natural death.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is a National Patient Safety Goal? a(bSirebl.ceocmt /taelslt that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Accurately identifying patients is a National Patient Safety Goal to prevent errors in patient care. Proper patient identification ensures correct treatments and medications are given, reducing harm. Restraint elimination, medication reconciliation, and infection reduction are important goals but not specific National Patient Safety Goals. Accurate patient identification directly addresses patient safety concerns.
Question 9 of 9
What is the basic underlying pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by damage to the alveolar epithelium, including type II pneumocytes responsible for producing surfactant. Surfactant reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing collapse. Damage to type II pneumocytes impairs surfactant production, leading to alveolar collapse and impaired gas exchange. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ARDS is not primarily caused by a decrease in white blood cells, damage to the right mainstem bronchus, or decreased capillary permeability.