ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient’s ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia. The fraction of inspired oxygen is increased from.60 to.70, and the positive end-expiratory pressure is increased from 10 to 15 cm H O. Shortly after these adjustments, the nurse notes that the patient’s blood pressure drops from 120/76 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What is the m ost likely cause of this decrease in blood pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemia. When the ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia by increasing FiO2 and PEEP, it can lead to increased oxygenation but also potentially decrease venous return to the heart, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This decrease in blood pressure is most likely due to hypovolemia, as the increased PEEP can increase intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return and preload, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent decrease in blood pressure. This choice is the most likely cause as the other options (A: Decrease in cardiac output, C: Increase in venous return, D: Oxygen toxicity) do not directly correlate with the changes in ventilator settings described in the question.
Question 2 of 9
When performing an initial pulmonary artery occlusion pr essure (PAOP), what are the best nursing actions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflate the balloon for no more than 8 to 10 seconds while noting the waveform change. This is because inflating the balloon within this time frame allows for accurate measurement of PAOP without causing complications like pulmonary edema. Noting the waveform change helps in determining the accurate pressure reading. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: B: Inflating the balloon with air and recording the volume necessary is not a recommended practice as it can lead to inaccurate readings and potential harm to the patient. C: Maintaining the balloon inflated for 8 hours following insertion is unnecessary and could lead to complications such as vascular damage or thrombosis. D: Zero referencing and leveling the transducer at the phlebostatic axis are important steps but not directly related to performing an initial PAOP measurement.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse manager is assisting a nurse with improving organizational skills and time management. Which nursing activity is the priority in pre-planning a schedule for selected nursing activities in the daily assignment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication administration. This is the priority because medication administration is time-sensitive and crucial for patient safety. It requires precise timing and cannot be delayed. Tracheostomy tube suctioning (A), colostomy care instruction (C), and client personal hygiene (D) are important nursing activities but can be adjusted within the schedule based on patient needs and acuity levels. Prioritizing medication administration ensures that patients receive their medications on time, preventing adverse events and promoting optimal health outcomes.
Question 4 of 9
Which action is best for the nurse to take to ensure culturally competent care for an alert, terminally ill Filipino patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it promotes patient-centered care by involving the patient and family in decision-making, respecting their autonomy and preferences. This approach acknowledges the importance of cultural beliefs and values in end-of-life care. Choice B undermines patient autonomy by bypassing direct communication with the patient. Choice C assumes all Filipino individuals have the same cultural needs, which is not accurate. Choice D generalizes preferences without considering individual patient needs and wishes. Overall, choice A is the most appropriate as it aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and cultural competence.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with severe neurological impairment following a massive stroke. The primary care provider has ordered tests to detearbmirbi.ncoem b/treasit n death. The nurse understands that criteria for brain death includes what crite ria? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of cerebral blood flow. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain functions, including blood flow to the brain. When there is no cerebral blood flow, the brain is unable to function, leading to brain death. This criterion is essential in diagnosing brain death as it indicates a complete loss of brain function. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examination is a common sign of brain death, but it is not the primary criterion. - C: Presence of Cheyne-Stokes respirations is not indicative of brain death. It is a pattern of breathing that can be seen in various conditions, not specifically brain death. - D: Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram is a supportive test for brain death but not the primary criterion. The absence of brain activity on an EEG can help confirm brain death but is not as definitive as the absence of cerebral blood flow.
Question 6 of 9
A triage nurse in a busy emergency department (ED) assesses a patient who complains of 7/10 abdominal pain and states, 'I had a temperature of 103.9°F (39.9°C) at home.' The nurse’s first action should be to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the patient's current vital signs. The nurse's first action should be to gather objective data to assess the patient's condition and determine the urgency of the situation. Vital signs, including temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, provide crucial information for the initial assessment. This will help the nurse identify any signs of sepsis, shock, or other serious conditions that require immediate intervention. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Giving acetaminophen without assessing the patient's vital signs and determining the cause of the symptoms could mask important clinical information and delay appropriate treatment. C: While obtaining a urine sample may be necessary later to rule out a urinary tract infection, it is not the most immediate priority in this case. D: Delaying the patient's assessment and care based on estimated wait times is not appropriate when the patient presents with potentially serious symptoms. Immediate evaluation is required in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is a member of a committee to design a critical care unit in a new building. Which design trend would best be implemented to facilitate famil y-centered care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Family-centered care promotes involvement of family members in patient care. 2. A sleeper sofa in the patient's room allows family members to stay overnight, enhancing support for the patient. 3. Storage for personal belongings ensures families can have essentials close by, increasing comfort and convenience. 4. These design elements facilitate family presence, communication, and participation in care, aligning with family-centered care principles. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Having a diagnostic suite nearby is convenient but not directly related to family-centered care principles. C. A waiting room with amenities is beneficial but does not directly involve families in patient care. D. Access to a garden for meditation is helpful for relaxation but does not emphasize family involvement in care.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a critically ill patient with a very concerned family. Given that the family is under high stress, what nursing intervention will best ameliorate their stress while preserving independence?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the family to participate in patient care tasks. This intervention helps to alleviate stress by involving the family in care, promoting a sense of control and empowerment. It also fosters a collaborative relationship between the family and healthcare team. The other choices are incorrect because B only focuses on asking questions but doesn't actively involve the family in care. C may add pressure on the selected representative and exclude others. D limits family involvement and may increase stress by restricting visitation.
Question 9 of 9
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventaiblairbto.croym /atessst istance that produces which of the following conditions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilation where pressure is maintained in the lungs at the end of expiration. This helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation. Option A is incorrect because PEEP does not deliver a full preset tidal volume with each breath initiation. Option B is incorrect because tidal volume in PEEP is not solely determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. Option C is incorrect because in PEEP, breaths are delivered irrespective of the patient's respiratory drive.