A patient’s status deteriorates and mechanical ventilation i s now required. The pulmonologist wants the patient to receive 10 breaths/min from the ventilaabtirobr.c bomu/tt ewst ants to encourage the patient to breathe spontaneously in between the mechanical breaths at his own tidal volume. This mode of ventilation is referred to by what term?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (IMV) allows the patient to breathe spontaneously between the preset mechanical breaths. 2. It provides a set number of breaths per minute while allowing the patient to initiate additional breaths at their own tidal volume. 3. IMV is a partial ventilatory support mode, providing a balance between controlled and spontaneous breathing. 4. Assist/Control Ventilation (A) provides full support with every breath initiated by the patient or the ventilator. 5. Controlled Ventilation (B) does not allow for spontaneous breaths by the patient. 6. Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (D) is a separate mode focusing on maintaining positive pressure at the end of expiration, not providing breaths.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess neurological status every 30 minutes. This intervention is crucial for patients receiving neuromuscular blocking agents to monitor for any adverse effects such as respiratory depression or paralysis. Regular assessments help ensure early detection of complications and prompt intervention. A: Administering sedatives in conjunction with neuromuscular blocking agents can potentiate respiratory depression and lead to respiratory compromise. C: Avoiding interaction with the patient is not appropriate as communication and patient interaction are important aspects of nursing care. D: Restraint should be avoided as it can increase the risk of complications such as pressure ulcers, anxiety, and decreased respiratory function. Overall, regular neurological assessments are essential for ensuring patient safety and prompt intervention in case of any complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): When the low-pressure alarm sounds for a patient with an arterial line, the nurse should assess for cardiac dysrhythmias first. This is because a sudden drop in pressure could indicate a serious issue affecting the heart's ability to pump effectively. Identifying and addressing any cardiac dysrhythmias promptly is crucial for patient safety. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Fast flush of the arterial line - This would not address the underlying cause of the low-pressure alarm and may not be necessary. B: Check the left hand for pallor - While assessing perfusion is important, it is not the priority when the alarm indicates a potential cardiac issue. D: Rezero the monitoring equipment - While important for accuracy, it is not the priority when the alarm indicates a potential cardiac concern.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disconnect the flush system from the arterial line catheter. This action is necessary to prevent air from entering the patient's bloodstream, which can lead to air embolism. By disconnecting the flush system, the nurse stops the flow of air and ensures patient safety. Checking the inflation volume of the pressurized bag (A) is not the immediate concern in this situation. Zero referencing the transducer system (C) is unrelated to the issue of air entering the arterial line. Reducing the number of stopcocks in the flush system tubing (D) does not address the immediate risk of air embolism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a mechanically ventilated patient with cardiogenic shock being treated with an intra-aortic balloon pump would benefit most from having a Vigileo pulse contour cardiac output monitoring system. This device provides continuous cardiac output monitoring and can help guide hemodynamic management in critically ill patients, especially those with hemodynamic instability like cardiogenic shock. It allows for real-time adjustments of fluid and vasoactive medications to optimize cardiac output and tissue perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because a patient with a history of aortic insufficiency and postoperative myocardial infarction may not require continuous cardiac output monitoring like the patient in choice B. Choice C is incorrect as the patient with atrial fibrillation and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia does not necessarily need cardiac output monitoring. Choice D is also incorrect as a mechanically ventilated patient following repair of an acute bowel obstruction may not require continuous cardiac output monitoring unless there are specific complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Checking circulation to the right hand is crucial for assessing perfusion and detecting potential complications. Step 2: Arterial line placement can compromise blood flow, leading to ischemia if circulation is impaired. Step 3: Monitoring circulation every 2 hours allows for early detection of issues and prompt intervention. Step 4: This action ensures patient safety and prevents complications. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as pressurized flush solution can increase the risk of complications. - Choice C is incorrect as monitoring the waveform is important but not the most critical action. - Choice D is incorrect as limb restraints can impede circulation and are unnecessary in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the patient and family's developmental stages and needs is crucial in understanding their current situation and determining the appropriate care plan. By assessing developmental stages, the nurse can tailor interventions to meet the family's specific needs. This assessment also helps in identifying potential challenges or areas requiring support. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the physical environment and does not address the family's developmental stages and needs. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes identifying family members without considering the importance of understanding their developmental stages and needs in providing family-centered care. Choice D is incorrect as it concentrates on family dynamics without directly addressing the crucial aspect of assessing developmental stages and needs for effective family-centered care.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: - Improved collaboration enhances job satisfaction and reduces burnout, leading to increased staff retention. - Higher staff retention promotes continuity of care, improves team dynamics, and enhances patient outcomes. Summary: - A: Not directly related to collaboration, more about performance evaluation. - B: Manners may improve, but not the most important effect of collaboration. - D: Collaboration involves open communication, so less discussion in front of patients is not a positive outcome.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Considers factors related to safe patient care. The scenario involves the nurse discussing the patient's living will with the physician, which is essential for ensuring safe patient care by following the patient's preferences. This aligns with the AACN standard of considering factors related to safe patient care, as the nurse is actively involving all relevant parties in decision-making to provide care that is in line with the patient's wishes. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Acquires and maintains current knowledge of practice - While important, this choice does not directly relate to the scenario where the focus is on safe patient care through communication and collaboration. B: Acts ethically on behalf of the patient and family - While ethics are important, the scenario is more about following the patient's wishes as outlined in the living will rather than making ethical decisions. D: Uses clinical inquiry and integrates research findings in practice - While valuable in nursing practice, this choice does not directly apply to the scenario where