A patient returning from Congo republic a week ago is with fever, headache vomiting and diarrhea, Three days after his admission to the infectious ward, despite antibiotic therapy, severe hemorrhagic syndrome developed and as well as CNS involvement, The diagnosis is hemorrhagic fever. Which of these viruses can be a causative agent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ebola virus. The patient's symptoms align with Ebola virus infection, including fever, severe hemorrhagic syndrome, and CNS involvement. Ebola virus is known to cause hemorrhagic fevers with high mortality rates. A: SARS CoV causes Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome, which typically presents with respiratory symptoms, not hemorrhagic fever. B: Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus usually causes a mild illness with flu-like symptoms, not severe hemorrhagic syndrome. D: ECHO 9 virus is associated with aseptic meningitis, not hemorrhagic fever.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high-salinity environments due to their ability to tolerate high salt concentrations. They have adapted mechanisms to maintain osmotic balance and survive in such extreme conditions. Thermophiles (B) thrive in high-temperature environments, not high-salinity. Acidophiles (C) prefer acidic conditions, not high-salinity. Mesophiles (D) grow optimally at moderate temperatures and are not specifically adapted to high-salinity environments.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. The statement is incorrect because the secondary immune response is actually faster than the primary immune response. This is due to memory cells that are formed during the primary response, allowing for a quicker and more robust reaction upon re-exposure to the same antigen. The secondary response produces more antibodies and is more effective in clearing the pathogen. Choice A is incorrect because the secondary response is faster, not slower. Choice C is incorrect because the statement is objectively false, regardless of the situation. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This is because Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive, which matches the characteristics described in the question. Staphylococcus epidermidis is also Gram-positive but is coagulase-negative. Streptococcus pneumoniae is Gram-positive but is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis is Gram-positive but is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus aureus is the likely causative agent of the wound infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cloudy surface indicates that the bacteria are growing where oxygen is present (aerobes), causing turbidity. The clear bottom suggests that the bacteria are not growing in the absence of oxygen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the observed phenomena do not necessarily indicate the need for an anaerobic chamber, enzyme deficiencies, or the microorganism being non-aerotolerant.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: nosocomial infections. Nosocomial infections are infections acquired in healthcare settings. This term specifically refers to infections that occur during the course of receiving medical treatment. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Incidental infections do not necessarily occur in healthcare settings. B: Accidental infections is not a commonly used term in healthcare for infections acquired in healthcare settings. D: Secondary infections refer to infections that occur as a result of a primary infection, not specifically related to healthcare settings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cell wall rigidity. Teichoic acid in Gram-positive bacteria helps to maintain the structural integrity of the cell wall by providing rigidity and stability. It also plays a role in regulating the movement of ions across the cell membrane. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because teichoic acid is not involved in energy production, spore formation, or motility in bacteria. It primarily functions in cell wall maintenance and integrity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculine. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin. This test helps determine if a person has been exposed to the bacteria that cause TB. Administering tuberculin is crucial for the Mantoux test as it triggers a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals previously exposed to TB. Choice B (BCG vaccine) is incorrect because BCG does not interfere with the Mantoux test results. Choice C (DPT vaccine) is incorrect as it is used for immunization against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, not for diagnosing TB. Choice D (Tularin test) is incorrect as it is not a recognized immunobiological agent for TB diagnosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Antitetanus serum is crucial for patients with open maxillofacial trauma to prevent tetanus infection from contaminated wounds. Step 2: Antibiotics are needed to prevent infection in the wound. Step 3: Antitetanus serum provides immediate passive immunity while antibiotics help combat potential infections. Step 4: Antitetanus immunoglobulin is not mentioned in the question and is not typically used for prophylaxis. Step 5: Anticonvulsive drugs are not preventive medications for maxillofacial trauma. Step 6: Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines are not specifically indicated for immediate prevention in this scenario.