ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient returning from Congo republic a week ago is with fever, headache vomiting and diarrhea, Three days after his admission to the infectious ward, despite antibiotic therapy, severe hemorrhagic syndrome developed and as well as CNS involvement, The diagnosis is hemorrhagic fever. Which of these viruses can be a causative agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ebola virus. The patient's symptoms align with Ebola virus infection, including fever, severe hemorrhagic syndrome, and CNS involvement. Ebola virus is known to cause hemorrhagic fevers with high mortality rates. A: SARS CoV causes Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome, which typically presents with respiratory symptoms, not hemorrhagic fever. B: Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus usually causes a mild illness with flu-like symptoms, not severe hemorrhagic syndrome. D: ECHO 9 virus is associated with aseptic meningitis, not hemorrhagic fever.
Question 2 of 9
Microbial life on teeth was first observed by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Van Leeuwenhoek. Van Leeuwenhoek was a Dutch scientist known for his pioneering work in microscopy. He was the first to observe microbial life, including bacteria on teeth, using his handmade microscopes in the 17th century. Jenner (choice A) is known for developing the smallpox vaccine, not for microbial observations. Semmelweis (choice B) discovered the importance of handwashing in preventing infections. Pasteur (choice D) is famous for his work on pasteurization and germ theory, but not specifically for observing microbial life on teeth. Van Leeuwenhoek's meticulous observations and groundbreaking discoveries make him the correct choice in this context.
Question 3 of 9
Tularemia is most often a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zoonosis. Tularemia is primarily a zoonotic disease, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans. The bacterium that causes tularemia, Francisella tularensis, commonly infects animals like rabbits, rodents, and ticks, which serve as reservoir hosts. Humans can get infected through direct contact with infected animals, insect bites, or contaminated water or soil. This zoonotic nature of tularemia distinguishes it from anthroponosis (A), which is transmitted only between humans, and sapronosis (C), which is transmitted through non-living environmental sources. Choice D is incorrect because there is a correct answer, which is zoonosis.
Question 4 of 9
Which one is NOT included in the non-specific immune response
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Memory cells are not part of the non-specific immune response because they are a component of the specific immune response. Non-specific immune responses are immediate and target a broad range of pathogens, whereas memory cells are formed after exposure to a specific pathogen to provide a quicker and stronger response upon subsequent exposure. Lysozyme (A), Interferon (C), and Phagocytosis (D) are all part of the non-specific immune response. Lysozyme is an enzyme that destroys bacterial cell walls, interferon helps to inhibit viral replication, and phagocytosis involves the engulfing and destruction of pathogens by phagocytes. These responses are not specific to particular pathogens and are the body's first line of defense.
Question 5 of 9
A man is suffering from diarrhea. In summer he spent his vacation in the south at the sea coast. Bacteria with the following properties were detected in his feces: gram-negative curved mobile monotrichous bacilli that do not produce spores or capsules. They are undemanding to nutrient medium but require alkaline reaction (Ñ€H 8.5-9.5). Described are the agents of the following enteric infection:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why the correct answer is A (Cholera): 1. Gram-negative curved mobile monotrichous bacilli: Vibrio cholerae, the causative agent of cholera, fits this description. 2. Do not produce spores or capsules: Vibrio cholerae does not produce spores or capsules. 3. Require alkaline reaction (pH 8.5-9.5): Vibrio cholerae thrives in alkaline environments. 4. Enteric infection: Cholera is a classic example of an enteric infection transmitted through contaminated food or water. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Shigellosis is caused by Shigella species, which are gram-negative, but they are not curved bacilli and do not require an alkaline pH. C: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella Typhi, which are gram-negative but are not curved bacilli and do not require an alkaline pH.
Question 6 of 9
Reassortment of gene segments can occur in one of the following families:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Family Reoviridae. Reassortment of gene segments occurs in segmented viruses like Reoviruses. In Reoviridae, each segment encodes a specific protein, allowing for reassortment to generate new strains. Togaviridae (A) is a non-segmented virus, not capable of reassortment. Picornaviridae (C) and Paramyxoviruses (D) are also non-segmented viruses, limiting their ability for reassortment. Therefore, the correct choice is B due to the segmented nature of Reoviruses allowing for genetic reassortment.
Question 7 of 9
Which bacteria are resistant to antibiotics and commonly found in hospitals?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), because it is known to be resistant to many antibiotics commonly used in hospitals. MRSA poses a significant threat in healthcare settings due to its resistance, making it difficult to treat. Choice B, Escherichia coli, is not typically resistant to antibiotics. Choice C, Salmonella enterica, and Choice D, Vibrio cholerae, are not commonly associated with antibiotic resistance in hospitals. Therefore, A is the correct answer based on its well-documented antibiotic resistance in healthcare settings.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacteria are known to produce spores that enable them to survive in extreme conditions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillus anthracis and Clostridium tetani are both spore-forming bacteria. 2. Spores allow them to survive harsh conditions like extreme heat or lack of nutrients. 3. Choice C is correct because both A and B (Bacillus anthracis and Clostridium tetani) produce spores. 4. Choice D is incorrect as both bacteria mentioned are known to produce spores, enabling them to survive in extreme conditions.
Question 9 of 9
Best drug to treat candida infections:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically used to treat candida infections. It works by disrupting the cell membrane of the fungus, leading to its death. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not fungal. Streptomycin (C) is also an antibiotic used for bacterial infections. Isoniazid (D) is used to treat tuberculosis, not candida infections. Therefore, Nystatin is the best choice for treating candida infections due to its antifungal properties.