ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient requires a high dose of a new antihypertensive medication because the new medication has a significant first-pass effect. What does this mean?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the extensive metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This reduces the bioavailability of the drug, necessitating a higher dose to achieve therapeutic effects. The medication does not need to pass through the bloodstream multiple times (A), nor is it primarily excreted in the kidneys (B). The drug’s effectiveness is not related to cumulative dosing (D).
Question 2 of 9
What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur after exposure to penicillin or other antibiotics. It is considered a serious adverse reaction because it can be life-threatening. Symptoms of anaphylaxis may include difficulty breathing, hives, swelling of the face and throat, rapid heartbeat, and a drop in blood pressure. Immediate medical attention is required if an individual experiences anaphylaxis after taking penicillin.
Question 3 of 9
What is the administration route of Penicillin in adults?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penicillin is typically administered to adults intravenously (IV) when a rapid onset of action is needed, such as in cases of severe infections or when the medication needs to reach high concentrations in the bloodstream quickly to be effective. Intravenous administration allows for immediate delivery of the medication directly into the bloodstream, ensuring efficient and quick distribution throughout the body.
Question 4 of 9
The patient has been depressed, and the physician plans to begin treatment with an antidepressant medication. In performing the initial assessment, what is the most important question for the nurse to ask?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Before antidepressants, assessing suicidal ideation is vital due to depression's suicide risk and SSRIs' potential to increase it initially. This ensures safety and guides monitoring. Alcohol use , allergies , and duration matter but are secondary to immediate risk. D prioritizes life-saving assessment, making it the most important question.
Question 5 of 9
A patient requires a high dose of a new antihypertensive medication because the new medication has a significant first-pass effect. What does this mean?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the extensive metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This reduces the bioavailability of the drug, necessitating a higher dose to achieve therapeutic effects. The medication does not need to pass through the bloodstream multiple times (A), nor is it primarily excreted in the kidneys (B). The drug’s effectiveness is not related to cumulative dosing (D).
Question 6 of 9
A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic with a migraine headache. What beta-adrenergic blocking agent might the physician prescribe for the prophylactic prevention of future migraine headaches?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension, angina pectoris, idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis, supraventricular tachycardia, tremor; prevention of reinfarction after myocardial infarction; adjunctive therapy in pheochromocytoma; prophylaxis of migraine headache; and management of situational anxiety. The other options do not treat or prevent migraine headaches. The nurse should understand the indications for propranolol to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct information to include when discussing possible adverse effects of beta blockers with a patient who has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism is to "Monitor your blood glucose levels for possible hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia." Beta blockers can mask the signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) in patients with diabetes by suppressing the sympathetic nervous system response to low blood sugar. This can lead to a delay in recognizing and treating hypoglycemia, which can be dangerous for diabetic patients. Additionally, beta blockers can also affect glucose metabolism and potentially worsen hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to manage these potential adverse effects and adjust the treatment regimen as needed.
Question 8 of 9
A female client who has a history of seizures went to a healthcare facility to ask the nurse regarding the use of birth control pills while on phenytoin therapy. The nurse correctly states to the client that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that can induce hepatic enzymes, which can lead to a decrease in the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives, including birth control pills. This interaction can increase the risk of unintended pregnancy. Therefore, it is important for the client to be advised about the decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while on phenytoin therapy and discuss alternative contraceptive options with her healthcare provider.
Question 9 of 9
When giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the health care provider notices various
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity can lead to serious complications, such as arrhythmias and heart failure. Digibind, also known as digoxin immune fab, is a specific antidote used to treat severe cases of digoxin toxicity. It works by binding to digoxin in the body and forming a complex that is then excreted through the kidneys, effectively reversing the toxic effects of digoxin. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin overdose, and Fluemanzil is not a medication used for reversing digoxin toxicity.