ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient reports severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Assessment reveals a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) and pulse of 82 beats/min. Results of a complete blood count reveal lower than normal segmented and banded neutrophils and higher than normal lymphocytes. Which type of infection does the nurse suspect this patient is most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Viral. The patient's symptoms (abdominal cramping, diarrhea, fever) are consistent with a viral infection, such as gastroenteritis. The lower segmented and banded neutrophils indicate a viral infection, as viruses often target lymphocytes. The higher lymphocyte count is a characteristic response to viral infections. Other choices are incorrect as fungal, parasitic, and bacterial infections typically present with different symptoms and laboratory findings.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes an aPTT level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An aPTT level of 28 seconds is below the therapeutic range for heparin, indicating a subtherapeutic dose. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider to adjust the heparin dosage to achieve the desired anticoagulant effect. Aspirin (choice A) does not affect aPTT levels. Warfarin (choice C) affects PT/INR, not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to aPTT levels.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What action is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the conjunctiva of the eye is the best way to assess pallor in dark-skinned individuals. Pallor is difficult to detect on dark skin due to increased melanin. The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane that can show pallor regardless of skin tone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because examining the hand, mouth, or palpating for swelling are not reliable methods for assessing pallor in dark-skinned individuals.
Question 4 of 5
A 6-year-old boy is noted to have worsening visual acuity on serial eye exams. Recent MRI of his brain and orbits reveals an optic chiasm mass, most consistent with an optic pathway glioma. Upon further examination, the physician notes axillary freckling and numerous “spots†on the patient's skin. This patient most likely has a which of the following genetic disorders?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neurofibromatosis type-1 (NF1). This is because the patient presents with optic pathway glioma, axillary freckling, and numerous skin spots, which are characteristic features of NF1. NF1 is caused by a mutation in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17, leading to the development of various tumors. Li Fraumeni syndrome is associated with multiple cancers but not specifically with optic pathway glioma or skin findings. Tuberous sclerosis presents with facial angiofibromas, cortical tubers, and subependymal nodules, not optic pathway glioma. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient.
Question 5 of 5
A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арретitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems there was a mistake in providing the correct answer. The answer should be D: Vomiting center. Ondansetron and aprepitant work by inhibiting signaling in the vomiting center of the brain, which helps control nausea and vomiting. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata, part of the brainstem responsible for coordinating the vomiting reflex. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the vestibular system is involved in balance and spatial orientation, the cerebral cortex is responsible for higher brain functions, and the hypothalamus plays a role in regulating various bodily functions but not directly in controlling vomiting.