ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient reports severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Assessment reveals a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) and pulse of 82 beats/min. Results of a complete blood count reveal lower than normal segmented and banded neutrophils and higher than normal lymphocytes. Which type of infection does the nurse suspect this patient is most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Viral. The patient's symptoms of abdominal cramping, diarrhea, fever, and altered white blood cell count with low neutrophils and high lymphocytes suggest a viral infection. Viral infections often present with these symptoms and characteristic lab findings. Other choices are incorrect because fungal infections typically do not cause acute abdominal symptoms, parasitic infections usually present with different symptoms and lab findings, and bacterial infections are more likely to have elevated neutrophils and different clinical presentation.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes an aPTT level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An aPTT level of 28 seconds indicates a shorter clotting time than normal, suggesting that the patient may be at risk for bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation with heparin. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider to adjust the heparin dosage to prevent bleeding complications. A: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication and does not affect aPTT levels. C: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist and primarily affects the PT/INR levels, not aPTT. D: Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production and does not affect clotting parameters such as aPTT.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What action is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the conjunctiva of the eye. This is because pallor, which is paleness of the skin, can be difficult to detect on dark skin. The conjunctiva of the eye is a mucous membrane that is not pigmented and can provide a more accurate indication of pallor. Options B, C, and D are not ideal for assessing pallor in a dark-skinned client as they may not show paleness accurately. B is more related to checking for pallor in fair-skinned individuals. C and D are not reliable indicators of pallor in any skin type.
Question 4 of 5
A 6-year-old boy is noted to have worsening visual acuity on serial eye exams. Recent MRI of his brain and orbits reveals an optic chiasm mass, most consistent with an optic pathway glioma. Upon further examination, the physician notes axillary freckling and numerous “spots†on the patient's skin. This patient most likely has a which of the following genetic disorders?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neurofibromatosis type-1 (NF1). This is because the patient presents with optic pathway glioma, axillary freckling, and numerous skin spots, which are classic features of NF1. NF1 is associated with multiple neurocutaneous manifestations, including café-au-lait spots, neurofibromas, and optic pathway gliomas. Li Fraumeni syndrome (B) is a cancer predisposition syndrome characterized by a high risk of developing various cancers, not typically associated with optic pathway gliomas or skin manifestations. Tuberous sclerosis (C) presents with features like facial angiofibromas, cortical tubers, and cardiac rhabdomyomas, not axillary freckling or optic pathway gliomas. Cystic Fibrosis (D) is a genetic disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient.
Question 5 of 5
A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арретitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Vomiting center. Ondansetron and aprepitant are antiemetic medications commonly used to control nausea and vomiting induced by chemotherapy. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in the vomiting center, which is located in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem. The vomiting center integrates signals from various areas of the body, including the chemoreceptor trigger zone, to induce the act of vomiting. Option A) Vestibular system is incorrect because this system primarily helps maintain balance and spatial orientation, not control nausea and vomiting. Option B) Cerebral cortex is incorrect because it is involved in higher-order brain functions such as thinking and decision-making, not in the regulation of nausea and vomiting. Option C) Hypothalamus is incorrect as it mainly regulates basic biological processes like hunger, thirst, and body temperature, not nausea and vomiting specifically. Understanding the mechanism of action of antiemetic medications is crucial in managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting in pediatric oncology patients. By targeting the vomiting center, healthcare providers can effectively alleviate symptoms and improve the quality of life for these young patients undergoing intensive cancer treatment.