Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.

Question 2 of 5

How does hyponatremia place the patient at risk?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hyponatremia places the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. While hyponatremia can lead to seizures due to cerebral edema caused by fluid imbalance, the most immediate and life-threatening risk is cardiac dysrhythmias. Low sodium levels can disrupt the heart's electrical activity, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias. Although fatigue and muscle weakness are symptoms of hyponatremia, cardiac dysrhythmias pose the most critical concern as they can have severe consequences.

Question 3 of 5

When planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alcohol consumption can exacerbate dehydration in patients with diabetes insipidus, so it is essential to advise them to avoid alcohol. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice A) is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Teaching the patient to increase fluids (choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by further diluting the urine. Increasing exercise to reduce stress (choice D) is not a primary intervention for managing diabetes insipidus.

Question 4 of 5

What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

Question 5 of 5

What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.

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