A patient refuses to take the prescribed medication. Which is the nurse’s best response to this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should first explore the patient's concerns and reasons for refusal. By doing so, the nurse can address any misconceptions, provide education, and potentially find a solution that addresses the patient's needs and concerns. This approach promotes patient autonomy and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the medication at the bedside does not address the patient's refusal or concerns. Choice C is not the best response as simply informing the patient of potential negative consequences may not address the underlying reasons for refusal. Choice D is inappropriate as administering medication without the patient's knowledge is a violation of autonomy and trust.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C: Fluoroquinolones interfere with metabolic processes by targeting bacterial enzymes involved in DNA replication and repair. This disrupts bacterial DNA synthesis, leading to cell death. This mechanism is distinct from options A, B, and D, which target different cellular components such as the cell wall, membrane, and protein synthesis. Hence, C is the correct choice for fluoroquinolones.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conjugation. Phase I drug metabolizing processes involve functionalization reactions to make the drug more polar for easier elimination. Conjugation reactions, on the other hand, occur in Phase II metabolism and involve the addition of endogenous molecules to the drug to further enhance its solubility for elimination. Hydrolysis, reduction, and oxidation are all Phase I processes that involve breaking down or modifying the drug molecule without conjugation. Therefore, Conjugation is NOT a phase I drug metabolizing process.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: First pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This process greatly reduces the fraction of unchanged drug that reaches systemic circulation, as the drug may be metabolized or broken down before it can exert its effects. This leads to lower bioavailability of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because first pass metabolism does affect the fraction of unchanged drug reaching systemic circulation. Choice B is incorrect as first pass metabolism does not necessarily impact the half-life of the drug in plasma. Choice C is incorrect because first pass metabolism does not accelerate the absorption rate of the drug; instead, it may decrease it by metabolizing the drug before it can be absorbed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin (5-HT) is NOT a monoamine neurotransmitter. Monoamine neurotransmitters have a single amino group and are derived from amino acids like tyrosine. Serotonin, however, is derived from tryptophan and belongs to the indoleamine class. Dopamine, Noradrenaline, and Adrenaline are all monoamine neurotransmitters derived from tyrosine and phenylalanine. Therefore, Serotonin does not fit the criteria for being a monoamine neurotransmitter, making choice A the correct answer.