ATI RN
Vital Signs Assessment for Nurses Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient referred to physical therapy with chronic low back pain has failed to make any progress toward meeting established goals in over three weeks of treatment. The physical therapist has employed a variety of treatment techniques but has yet to observe improvement. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Re-examine the patient and establish new goals. This is the most appropriate next step because if the patient has not shown progress in over three weeks, it indicates a need to reassess the current treatment plan and goals. By re-examining the patient, the therapist can identify any factors hindering progress and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. This proactive approach ensures the patient receives the most effective care. Choice A: Transferring the patient to another therapist does not address the root cause of the lack of progress and may disrupt continuity of care. Choice C: Simply continuing to modify the treatment plan without re-evaluating the patient may not lead to improved outcomes. Choice D: Alerting the referring physician should be done after reassessment and establishing new goals, as the physician may require updated information but is not the immediate next step.
Question 2 of 5
A physical therapist evaluates a patient with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome. Which clinical test is MOST appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phalen's test. This test involves the patient flexing their wrists for 60 seconds to reproduce symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome. This maneuver compresses the median nerve, causing numbness and tingling in the fingers. Phalen's test is specific for carpal tunnel syndrome. Other choices are not specific to this condition. Finkelstein test is for De Quervain's tenosynovitis, Tinel's sign at the elbow is for ulnar nerve entrapment, and Empty can test is for rotator cuff pathology.
Question 3 of 5
A physical therapist evaluates a patient following a transtibial amputation. Which factor is MOST likely to contribute to knee instability during gait?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prosthesis aligned in excessive dorsiflexion. Excessive dorsiflexion can lead to increased knee flexion during stance phase of gait, causing knee instability. Weak hip abductors (A) may contribute to Trendelenburg gait but not knee instability. A prosthesis that is too short (C) may result in decreased step length but not necessarily knee instability. A socket too tight (D) can cause discomfort and skin breakdown but is unlikely to directly lead to knee instability.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on a child and notes that the tympanic membrane is red and bulging. What condition does this finding suggest?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Otitis media. In otitis media, the middle ear becomes infected and inflamed, causing the tympanic membrane to appear red and bulging. This can be due to the accumulation of fluid and pus behind the eardrum. Otitis externa (choice A) involves inflammation of the ear canal, not the middle ear. A perforated eardrum (choice C) would show a hole or tear in the membrane rather than redness and bulging. Choice D is incorrect as a red and bulging tympanic membrane is not a normal finding in children.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following findings during a respiratory assessment is considered abnormal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles during breathing. This finding is considered abnormal because it indicates increased work of breathing and respiratory distress. Accessory muscles should not be used during normal breathing. A: Symmetrical chest expansion, B: Resonance on percussion, and D: Clear breath sounds are all normal findings indicating proper lung function and ventilation.