ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient recovering from a leg fracture after a fall reports having dull pain in the affected leg and rates it as a 7 on a 0 to 10 scale. The patient is not able to walk around in the room with crutches because of leg discomfort. Which nursing intervention is priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer pain medication. The priority in this situation is to address the patient's pain and provide relief. Administering pain medication will help alleviate the discomfort and enable the patient to mobilize with crutches or a walker. Walking without pain is crucial for the patient's recovery. Explanation for other choices: A: Assisting the patient to walk with crutches may worsen the pain and should not be attempted until the pain is managed. B: Obtaining a walker is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the patient's pain. C: Consulting physical therapy may be beneficial in the long term, but immediate pain relief is the priority in this situation.
Question 2 of 9
The following. items are transported in blood plasma, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen. Oxygen is primarily transported in the blood bound to hemoglobin within red blood cells, not dissolved in plasma. Carbon dioxide is transported in plasma. Nutrients and hormones are also transported in plasma. Therefore, choice A is incorrect as oxygen is not primarily transported in plasma.
Question 3 of 9
During a routine check-up, the nurse evaluates a client with rheumatoid arthritis. To assess for the most obvious disease manifestations first, the nurse checks for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Joint abnormalities. In rheumatoid arthritis, joint abnormalities such as swelling, warmth, and tenderness are the hallmark manifestations. Assessing joint abnormalities first is crucial as they are the primary clinical signs of the disease. Muscle weakness (A) is a common symptom but typically occurs later due to joint inflammation and disuse. Painful subcutaneous nodules (B) are present in some cases but are not as common or prominent as joint abnormalities. Gait disturbances (D) may occur as a result of joint damage, but they are secondary to the primary manifestation of joint abnormalities. By prioritizing the assessment of joint abnormalities, the nurse can promptly identify and address the most prevalent disease manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse notes frequent muscle twitching when collecting admission data on a patient admitted for increasing muscle weakness. Which of the ff. terms should the nurse use to document this?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fasciculations. Fasciculations are involuntary muscle twitches commonly seen with neurological conditions like motor neuron disease. In this case, the patient's muscle weakness and frequent muscle twitching indicate possible nerve damage. Chorea (B) is characterized by involuntary, jerky movements, not twitching. Atrophy (C) refers to muscle wasting, not twitching. Neuropathy (D) is a general term for nerve damage and does not specifically describe the muscle twitching seen in this patient.
Question 5 of 9
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is discharging a client from the hospital. When should discharge planning be initiated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The client wears a watch and wedding band. This is because metal objects such as watches and jewelry can be hazardous during an MRI scan due to the strong magnetic field, leading to potential movement or heating of the metal objects, causing harm to the client. A: The client lies still - This is important for obtaining clear images during an MRI scan and does not pose a threat to the client. C: The client asks questions - Asking questions during an MRI scan does not pose a direct threat to the client's safety. D: The client hears thumping sounds - Thumping sounds are a normal part of the MRI scan and do not pose a threat to the client's safety.
Question 8 of 9
Which is the most reliable method for monitoring fluid balance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily intake and output. Monitoring fluid balance involves tracking the amount of fluids taken in and expelled from the body. Intake includes oral, IV, and tube feedings, while output includes urine, vomitus, diarrhea, and any other fluid losses. Daily intake and output provide a comprehensive view of a patient's fluid status, helping identify trends and potential issues. Vital signs (B) provide general information but not specific to fluid balance. Daily weight (C) can fluctuate due to various factors, not just fluid status. Skin turgor (D) is a late sign of dehydration and not as reliable as intake and output monitoring.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus how to treat adverse reactions to insulin. To reverse a hypoglycemic reaction, the client ideally should ingest an oral carbohydrate. However, this treatment isn’t always a possible or safe. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to keep which alternate treatment on hand?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucagon. In a hypoglycemic reaction, glucagon can be administered to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Glucagon works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. This is crucial in emergencies when oral carbohydrates are not feasible. Epinephrine (A) is used for severe allergic reactions, not hypoglycemia. 50% dextrose (B) is an oral carbohydrate used for hypoglycemia but is not always practical. Hydrocortisone (D) is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions, not for hypoglycemic emergencies.