A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness midmorning. During lunch he has difficulty swallowing food and speaking, and when vital signs are taken 30 minutes later, he is noted to be stuporous and diaphoretic, with a temperature of 38.8° C, pulse of 110 beats/min, and blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg. The nurse should suspect _________ and should ______________.

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First Aid Cardiovascular Drugs Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness midmorning. During lunch he has difficulty swallowing food and speaking, and when vital signs are taken 30 minutes later, he is noted to be stuporous and diaphoretic, with a temperature of 38.8° C, pulse of 110 beats/min, and blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg. The nurse should suspect _________ and should ______________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). NMS is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. The patient's symptoms of severe muscle stiffness, difficulty swallowing, altered mental status, diaphoresis, fever, tachycardia, and hypertension are classic signs of NMS. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Severe muscle stiffness: characteristic symptom of NMS due to muscle rigidity. 2. Difficulty swallowing and speaking: indicative of autonomic dysfunction commonly seen in NMS. 3. Altered mental status: stuporous state is a hallmark feature of NMS. 4. Diaphoresis, fever (38.8° C), tachycardia (110 beats/min), hypertension (150/90 mm Hg): all signs of autonomic dysregulation and hyperadrenergic state in NMS. Summary of other choices: B: Anticholinergic toxicity -

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has been diagnosed recently with a mental health disorder and has been prescribed a psychotropic medication. Which interventions regarding the medication should the nurse include in the teaching plan?Select the one tha does not apply.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it is important for clients to never adjust their dosage of psychotropic medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Step 2: Teaching clients to decrease dosages on their own can be dangerous and lead to adverse effects or worsening of symptoms. Step 3: Option A is correct as it empowers the client to recognize and address side effects promptly. Option B is correct as it provides essential information about the medication. Option C is correct as it assesses understanding and readiness to seek help. Step 4: In summary, option D is incorrect because clients should always consult their healthcare provider before making any changes to their medication regimen.

Question 3 of 5

A client with severe depression has sleep disturbance and anorexia. The nurse’s planning will be enhanced by understanding that these symptoms may be attributed to dysfunction of the:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating sleep, appetite, and other basic functions related to survival. Dysfunction in the hypothalamus can lead to sleep disturbances and anorexia, as seen in severe depression. The other choices (A, B, and D) are not directly responsible for regulating sleep and appetite, making them incorrect in this context. The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, the basal ganglia in motor control and habit formation, and the occipital lobe in visual processing.

Question 4 of 5

Ramelteon (Rozerem) is prescribed for a patient with insomnia. The nurse checks the patient’s medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Liver disease. Ramelteon is metabolized in the liver, so patients with liver disease may have impaired drug metabolism, leading to potential toxicity. Coronary artery disease (A), renal insufficiency (B), and anemia (D) are not contraindications for ramelteon as they do not directly affect drug metabolism in the liver.

Question 5 of 5

When applying transdermal nitroglycerin patches, which instruction by the nurse is correct?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotate application sites with each dose. This instruction is crucial to prevent skin irritation and tolerance development. By rotating sites, the skin has time to recover, ensuring optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect as using only the chest area can lead to skin irritation. Choice C is incorrect because the patch should not be removed when swimming as it may affect drug delivery. Choice D is incorrect as applying the patch to the same site can cause localized skin reactions and reduced effectiveness. Rotation is key for consistent drug absorption and minimizing skin irritation.

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