A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage pancreatic cancer experiences severe abdominal pain. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage pancreatic cancer experiences severe abdominal pain. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with severe abdominal pain due to end-stage pancreatic cancer, the priority intervention to manage their symptoms would be to provide adequate pain relief. Opioid analgesics are the cornerstone of pain management for cancer patients experiencing severe pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system, thereby reducing the perception of pain. Opioids are highly effective in managing cancer pain, including abdominal pain, and can significantly improve the patient's quality of life by providing relief from distressing symptoms. Therefore, administering opioid analgesics should be the nurse's primary intervention in this case to address the patient's severe abdominal pain. Initiating enteral nutrition, recommending hot compresses, or referring to a gastroenterologist may be relevant interventions depending on the patient's overall care plan but addressing the pain should be the immediate priority in this scenario.

Question 2 of 5

A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's ICP?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In cases of acute intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP), a significant factor contributing to the elevated ICP is often the mass effect caused by the hematoma within the brain. Performing an emergent craniotomy for hematoma evacuation is a critical intervention to relieve the pressure within the intracranial space, thereby mitigating the risk of herniation and further neurological damage. While other interventions such as hypertonic saline therapy, head-of-bed elevation, and sedative medications may have supporting roles in managing ICP, none address the primary cause of elevated ICP in cases of acute intracerebral hemorrhage as effectively as hematoma evacuation through craniotomy.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with a Colles' fracture. What is the characteristic deformity associated with this type of fracture?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Colles' fracture is a type of distal radius fracture characterized by a break of the radius bone in the forearm close to the wrist. In a Colles' fracture, the distal fragment of the fractured radius bone gets displaced dorsally, meaning it shifts upwards towards the back of the hand, creating a characteristic "dinner fork" deformity when viewed from the side. This dorsal displacement results in a visible bump on the back of the wrist and a noticeable deformity when compared to the uninjured side.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following is a common complication associated with untreated clubfoot in infants?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hip dysplasia is a common complication associated with untreated clubfoot in infants. If clubfoot is not treated promptly and properly, it can lead to abnormal development of the hip joint, resulting in hip dysplasia. This condition involves the abnormal formation of the hip socket, which can cause instability and potential dislocation of the hip joint. Early identification and treatment of clubfoot are important in preventing complications such as hip dysplasia.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with acute pain, swelling, and deformity of the ankle following a twisting injury. X-ray reveals a fracture involving the distal fibula with associated widening of the ankle mortise. Which type of ankle fracture is most likely?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A trimalleolar fracture is characterized by fractures involving the lateral malleolus (distal fibula), medial malleolus (distal tibia), and the posterior tubercle of the distal tibia. This fracture pattern results in instability of the ankle joint and is often associated with widening of the ankle mortise on X-ray. The deformity and swelling seen in this patient are indicative of a trimalleolar fracture and are typically caused by a high-energy injury, such as a forceful twisting motion. Treatment for trimalleolar fractures often involves surgical intervention to stabilize the ankle joint and restore normal function.

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