ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage renal disease is experiencing symptoms of depression. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing emotional support and offering counseling or therapy sessions address the root cause of the patient's depression in a holistic manner. This intervention allows the patient to express their emotions, process their feelings, and receive guidance on coping strategies. Encouraging social activities (A) may not directly address the underlying emotional issues. Referring to a psychiatrist for medication (B) should be considered if counseling alone is insufficient. Exploring spiritual beliefs (D) is important but may not be the most immediate priority for addressing depression in this context.
Question 2 of 9
A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of uterine inertia, with weak and irregular contractions contributing to slow cervical dilation. What nursing intervention should be implemented to address this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cases of uterine inertia, where weak and irregular contractions are causing slow cervical dilation during labor, administering intravenous oxytocin can help augment contractions and stimulate more effective progress. Oxytocin is a hormone that naturally stimulates uterine contractions and is commonly used in clinical settings to induce or enhance labor. By increasing the strength and frequency of contractions, oxytocin can help address uterine inertia and promote efficient cervical dilation to facilitate the progress of labor. It is important to monitor the response to oxytocin carefully to avoid complications such as hyperstimulation of the uterus, which can lead to fetal distress.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is conducting a discharge planning assessment for a patient preparing to transition home. What action by the nurse demonstrates continuity of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because communicating with the patient's primary care provider and community resources demonstrates continuity of care. This action ensures a seamless transition from the hospital to home by keeping all involved parties informed and involved in the patient's care. Option A (written discharge instructions only) may provide information but lacks coordination with other healthcare providers. Option B (discharging without follow-up care coordination) can lead to gaps in care. Option D (disregarding patient concerns) goes against patient-centered care and can disrupt the continuity of care.
Question 4 of 9
When a person vaccinated with a Covid-19 vaccine produces antibodies to the disease, the immunity is termed:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active artificial immunity. This is because the person's immune system is actively stimulated by the vaccine to produce antibodies against Covid-19. It is considered artificial because it is acquired through vaccination rather than natural exposure to the disease. B: Active natural immunity is incorrect because it refers to immunity acquired through natural exposure to the disease. C: Passive natural immunity is incorrect because it refers to temporary immunity passed from mother to baby through breast milk or placenta. D: Passive artificial immunity is incorrect because it refers to receiving pre-formed antibodies, such as through an injection of antibodies rather than the body producing them itself.
Question 5 of 9
When a nurse commits an error in the progress notes the BEST action she should do is to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to choose option C: put a line across the sentence, make the correction over it, and sign. This method is recommended because it maintains the integrity of the original record by showing what was initially written and clearly indicating the correction. By crossing out the error, making the correction, and signing the entry, the nurse acknowledges and takes responsibility for the mistake while ensuring the accuracy and transparency of the documentation. Option A is incorrect as crossing the error many times can make the note illegible and may not clearly indicate the correction. Option B is incorrect because using correction fluid can make the note messy and may raise suspicions of tampering with the record. Option D is incorrect as erasing with a rubber eraser can damage the document and also raise concerns about the validity of the information. In summary, option C is the best choice as it allows for a clear and professional correction without compromising the integrity of the progress notes.
Question 6 of 9
A common chronic complication of diabetes due to the thickening of the capillaries and arterioles of the eye is?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetic retinopathy. This condition is a common complication of diabetes that occurs due to the thickening of capillaries and arterioles in the eye, leading to damage to the retina. This can result in vision problems and even blindness if left untreated. A: Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure, not related to diabetes. B: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the eye, not directly caused by diabetes. C: Retinal detachment is the separation of the retina from the underlying tissues, which is not primarily caused by diabetes-related capillary changes.
Question 7 of 9
Nurse Chona read in one nurse's notes chart this documentation: "Refused to eat and fell from bed". Which of the following is lacking in this documentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the documentation lacks essential details regarding the contents of the complaints, reasons for refusing the meal, and the nature of the fall. This information is crucial for understanding the patient's condition and providing appropriate care. Choice A is not directly related to the documentation provided. Choice B is about referrals and medications, which are not mentioned in the documentation. Choice D is about eating time and medications for pain, which are also not relevant to the documentation provided. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it addresses the specific missing information in the nurse's notes.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anterior uveitis. This condition presents with redness, pain, and photophobia due to inflammation of the uveal tract. Ciliary injection, corneal edema, and mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light are classic signs of anterior uveitis. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific findings: B: Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with a high intraocular pressure, not fixed dilated pupil. C: Endophthalmitis typically presents with severe pain, hypopyon, and vitreous inflammation. D: Corneal abrasion would not cause ciliary injection or fixed dilated pupil.
Question 9 of 9
To promote drainage and reduce pressure from fluid, Nurse Selma nursing intervention is to have the child assume any of the following positions, EXCEPT _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lie on the affected area. This position would hinder drainage and increase pressure on the affected area. A: Tilt head to the side if sitting up, is correct as it promotes drainage. C: Putting pillows behind the head can also aid drainage. D: Lying on the non-affected ear can help reduce pressure on the affected side.