A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following interventions is the KEY to increasing the survival rates of clients with lung cancer?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking cessation. Smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer, so quitting smoking is crucial in preventing and improving survival rates. Smoking cessation reduces the risk of developing lung cancer and improves treatment outcomes. High-dose chemotherapy (A) may be part of the treatment plan, but quitting smoking is more impactful. Early bronchoscopy (C) and early detection (D) are important, but without addressing the root cause (smoking), the survival rates will not significantly increase.

Question 3 of 9

A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of prolonged second stage, characterized by ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a woman in active labor exhibits signs of prolonged second stage, such as ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent, one of the maternal conditions that should be considered is pelvic floor dysfunction. The pelvic floor muscles play a crucial role in supporting the uterus, bladder, and rectum. If these muscles are weak or dysfunctional, it can lead to difficulty in pushing effectively and impede the descent of the fetus through the birth canal. This can result in prolonged labor and increase the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, assessing for pelvic floor dysfunction is important in addressing the abnormal labor pattern and providing appropriate interventions to support the progress of labor.

Question 4 of 9

A common chronic complication of diabetes due to the thickening of the capillaries and arterioles of the eye is?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetic retinopathy. This condition is a common complication of diabetes that occurs due to the thickening of capillaries and arterioles in the eye, leading to damage to the retina. This can result in vision problems and even blindness if left untreated. A: Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure, not related to diabetes. B: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the eye, not directly caused by diabetes. C: Retinal detachment is the separation of the retina from the underlying tissues, which is not primarily caused by diabetes-related capillary changes.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with acute onset of shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the greater tuberosity of the humerus and pain with passive abduction and external rotation of the shoulder. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotator cuff tear. The presentation of acute shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand, along with tenderness over the greater tuberosity and pain with passive abduction and external rotation, is classic for a rotator cuff tear. The mechanism of injury and physical exam findings are consistent with this condition. B: Glenohumeral dislocation typically presents with a visibly deformed shoulder and loss of normal shoulder contour. C: Acromioclavicular joint separation would present with tenderness over the AC joint rather than the greater tuberosity, and typically involves a history of direct trauma to the shoulder. D: Proximal humerus fracture would present with more diffuse shoulder pain and swelling, and not specific tenderness over the greater tuberosity.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with advanced cancer develops malignant bowel obstruction, resulting in abdominal pain and distension. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.

Question 7 of 9

To begin your discussion, you explain to her that the endocrine glands include, which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it includes all the major endocrine glands: pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenals, pancreatic islets, and hypothalamus. The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" as it controls other endocrine glands. The thyroid gland regulates metabolism, while the parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels. The adrenal glands produce hormones involved in stress response. Pancreatic islets produce insulin and glucagon. The hypothalamus plays a key role in hormone regulation. Choice B is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes, which are not endocrine glands. Choice C is incorrect because it omits the hypothalamus. Choice D is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes which are not endocrine glands.

Question 8 of 9

Nurse has a complaint from a parent for administering gwrong dose of vaccine to the child. This act is a form of _______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would under similar circumstances. In this case, administering the wrong dose of a vaccine indicates a lack of proper care or attention to detail, which constitutes negligence. A: Battery involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent, which is not applicable in this situation. C: Assault involves the threat of harm or unwanted physical contact, which is also not relevant here. D: Malpractice typically refers to professional misconduct or negligence by a healthcare provider, which could be a broader term but not specific to the situation described.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.

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