ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following would prove that the nursing action carried out met, the standards of care on falls ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilizing the nursing process in providing safe, quality nursing care. This is because the nursing process involves assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation, which ensures comprehensive and individualized care. Documenting procedures (B) is important but does not guarantee meeting standards of care. Simply carrying out doctor's orders (C) may not address all aspects of patient care. Performing physical assessment (D) is crucial but only one component of the nursing process. Ultimately, utilizing the nursing process ensures holistic and evidence-based care, meeting the standards of care on falls.
Question 3 of 9
When a person vaccinated with a Covid-19 vaccine produces antibodies to the disease, the immunity is termed:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active artificial immunity. This is because the person's immune system is actively stimulated by the vaccine to produce antibodies against Covid-19. It is considered artificial because it is acquired through vaccination rather than natural exposure to the disease. B: Active natural immunity is incorrect because it refers to immunity acquired through natural exposure to the disease. C: Passive natural immunity is incorrect because it refers to temporary immunity passed from mother to baby through breast milk or placenta. D: Passive artificial immunity is incorrect because it refers to receiving pre-formed antibodies, such as through an injection of antibodies rather than the body producing them itself.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.
Question 5 of 9
A patient expresses distrust in the healthcare system due to previous negative experiences. What is the nurse's best approach to rebuild trust?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because actively listening, acknowledging the patient's concerns, and working towards rebuilding trust through transparency and reliability are essential steps in addressing distrust. By validating the patient's experiences and actively involving them in the process, the nurse can foster a supportive and trusting relationship. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns can further damage trust and undermine the patient's feelings. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the distrust can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust. Choice D is incorrect because telling the patient to trust the healthcare system without addressing their concerns is dismissive and unhelpful.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 7 of 9
Korino has been using meperidine and codeine for personal consumption. Which of the following does the nurse understand as the physiologic effect of these drugs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieves pain by increasing pain threshold. Meperidine and codeine are opioid analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, thus increasing the pain threshold and reducing the perception of pain. This leads to pain relief without necessarily affecting sexual stimulation (choice A), craving for alcohol (choice C), or concentration/alertness (choice D). The primary physiological effect of these drugs is to modulate the perception of pain, making choice B the most appropriate answer in this context.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a suspected autoimmune disorder exhibits antibodies directed against self-antigens, leading to tissue damage and inflammation. Which of the following mechanisms is primarily responsible for the development of autoimmune diseases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Loss of self-tolerance. This is because autoimmune diseases result from a breakdown in the immune system's ability to distinguish between self and non-self antigens, leading to the production of antibodies against self-antigens. When self-tolerance is lost, immune cells mistakenly target the body's own tissues, causing tissue damage and inflammation. Choice B (Failure of innate immunity) is incorrect because autoimmune diseases are primarily driven by adaptive immunity rather than innate immunity. Choice C (Defective T cell activation) is incorrect as T cells play a critical role in the immune response to self-antigens in autoimmune diseases. Choice D (Impaired phagocytosis) is incorrect as phagocytosis is a mechanism primarily involved in the removal of pathogens, not in the development of autoimmune diseases.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Mauve is now on ethical dilemma. This occurs when _______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an ethical dilemma arises when there is a conflict between two or more ethical principles, leading to a difficult decision-making situation for Nurse Mauve. This involves weighing the benefits and consequences of each ethical principle to determine the best course of action. Choice A is incorrect as time pressure does not define an ethical dilemma. Choice B is incorrect because ethical dilemmas involve conflicting choices, not unclear ones. Choice C is incorrect as the conflict in an ethical dilemma is not necessarily with a superior but can be internal or with other stakeholders.