ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cryptosporidium parvum. This parasite is the most likely cause of the infection due to its presentation with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water. Laboratory tests revealing oocysts in the stool sample further support this diagnosis as Cryptosporidium parvum is known to produce oocysts in the stool. Giardia lamblia (choice A) presents with similar symptoms but does not typically produce oocysts. Entamoeba histolytica (choice B) is more associated with bloody diarrhea and liver abscesses. Cyclospora cayetanensis (choice D) is also associated with watery diarrhea but is less common in this scenario. Thus, based on the symptoms and laboratory findings, Cryptosporidium parvum is the most likely culprit.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse has a complaint from a parent for administering gwrong dose of vaccine to the child. This act is a form of _______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would under similar circumstances. In this case, administering the wrong dose of a vaccine indicates a lack of proper care or attention to detail, which constitutes negligence. A: Battery involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent, which is not applicable in this situation. C: Assault involves the threat of harm or unwanted physical contact, which is also not relevant here. D: Malpractice typically refers to professional misconduct or negligence by a healthcare provider, which could be a broader term but not specific to the situation described.
Question 3 of 9
A woman in active labor is receiving an epidural analgesic for pain relief. What assessment findings indicate a potential complication of epidural analgesia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: One potential complication of epidural analgesia in labor is maternal hypotension. The epidural analgesic can cause vasodilation, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Maternal hypotension can result in decreased placental perfusion, which may jeopardize fetal well-being. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor the maternal blood pressure closely and intervene promptly if hypotension occurs by providing IV fluids or administering medication to raise blood pressure. Uterine hyperstimulation, fetal tachycardia, and respiratory depression are not typically associated with epidural analgesia as complications.
Question 4 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with severe abdominal pain and passage of tissue at 12 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is partially dilated, and products of conception are protruding through the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the pregnant woman is presenting with severe abdominal pain, passage of tissue, and cervical dilation with products of conception protruding through the cervical os at 12 weeks gestation. These are classic signs and symptoms of an incomplete abortion. Incomplete abortion occurs when not all of the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. It can present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, cervical dilation, and passage of tissue. The management of incomplete abortion may involve expectant, medical, or surgical options depending on the clinical context and the patient's condition.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is preparing to assist with a lumbar epidural steroid injection (LESI) procedure for a patient with chronic back pain. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure procedural accuracy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Confirming the patient's identity ensures the right patient is receiving the intended procedure. 2. Verifying the procedure site using two identifiers prevents errors in site selection. 3. This step aligns with the World Health Organization's Surgical Safety Checklist, reducing the risk of wrong-site procedures. 4. Positioning, sedation, and local anesthesia are important but secondary to ensuring the correct patient and site. Summary: - Option B: Positioning is essential but not the top priority for procedural accuracy. - Option C: Sedation aims to minimize discomfort but does not guarantee procedural accuracy. - Option D: Administering local anesthesia is crucial but not as critical as confirming patient identity and procedure site.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,
Question 7 of 9
Mr. M is receiving hospice care for a terminal illness. He wants to make sure his daughter is allowed to make any decisions regarding his care should he become unable to do so. What document would permit his daughter to do this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Durable power of attorney. This legal document allows Mr. M to appoint his daughter as his healthcare proxy, granting her the authority to make medical decisions on his behalf if he becomes incapacitated. A: Expressed contract involves clear terms agreed upon by both parties, not relevant here. B: Implied contract arises from actions rather than explicit agreement, not applicable in this situation. D: A living will outlines an individual's medical treatment preferences, but does not grant decision-making authority to another person.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following directly VIOLATES the Patient's Bill of Rights?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because disclosing a patient's HIV status to family members violates the patient's right to privacy and confidentiality. Patient confidentiality is a fundamental aspect of the Patient's Bill of Rights, ensuring that personal health information is protected. The other choices (A, C, D) do not directly violate the Patient's Bill of Rights. Choice A relates to transparency in billing, choice C is about honesty in communication, and choice D is about timely communication with the physician, all of which are in line with patient rights and quality care.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.