ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presents with urinary frequency, urgency, dysuria, and suprapubic pain. Urinalysis reveals pyuria and bacteriuria. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's presentation of urinary frequency, urgency, dysuria, and suprapubic pain along with the urinalysis findings of pyuria (pus in the urine) and bacteriuria (bacteria in the urine) are highly suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI). UTIs are one of the most common types of bacterial infections seen in clinical practice. The symptoms described are classic for a lower urinary tract infection. The presence of pyuria and bacteriuria on urinalysis further supports the diagnosis of a UTI. Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema. Chronic kidney disease is often asymptomatic in early stages and presents with symptoms like fatigue, edema, and changes in urination later on. Renal calculi are associated with severe colicky flank pain that can radiate to the groin, and they may present with
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland, typically presenting with dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, and perineal or pelvic pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prostatitis is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland, leading to symptoms such as dysuria (painful urination), urinary frequency, urinary urgency, and perineal or pelvic pain. Prostate cancer, on the other hand, is characterized by the presence of malignant cells in the prostate gland and may not present with these typical symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that can cause urinary symptoms but is not typically associated with inflammation. Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra, which is a different condition and may present with symptoms such as painful urination and discharge from the urethra.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite that commonly causes waterborne illness characterized by watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea. This parasite is often transmitted through contaminated water sources such as streams or lakes. Laboratory tests identifying oocysts in the stool sample are indicative of Cryptosporidium infection. Giardia lamblia can also cause similar symptoms, but the presence of oocysts points more towards Cryptosporidium in this case. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery with bloody diarrhea and is usually associated with fecal-oral transmission through contaminated food or water. Cyclospora cayetanensis typically causes prolonged watery diarrhea and is associated with the ingestion of contaminated food or water.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash at the site of a tick bite. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Borrelia burgdorferi, which is the bacterium responsible for causing Lyme disease. The classic presentation of Lyme disease includes fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash, known as erythema migrans. This rash typically appears at the site of a tick bite. If left untreated, Lyme disease can progress to involve multiple organ systems and lead to more severe complications. Plasmodium falciparum is the causative agent of malaria, which typically presents with symptoms such as fever, chills, and fatigue, but it does not cause a "bull's eye" rash. Trypanosoma cruzi is the parasite responsible for Chagas disease, which presents with symptoms such as fever, swelling at the site of entry (typically the bite wound), and enlarged lymph nodes, but it does not
Question 5 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with a history of recurrent pregnancy losses in the second trimester. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and uterine contractions are absent. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that is unable to support the weight of the growing fetus, leading to painless cervical dilation and second-trimester pregnancy loss. In this condition, the cervix may dilate prematurely without contractions, resulting in a painless cervical dilation. The history of recurrent second-trimester losses, along with cervical dilation and absence of uterine contractions in the presenting pregnant woman, are characteristic of incompetent cervix. Prompt recognition and management with cerclage placement can help prevent further pregnancy losses in women with incompetent cervix.