ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with swelling of the ankles, dyspnea on exertion, and orthopnea. An echocardiogram reveals decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and dilated left ventricle. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's presentation of swelling of the ankles, dyspnea on exertion, and orthopnea is highly suggestive of heart failure. The echocardiogram findings of decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and dilated left ventricle are characteristic of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), also known as systolic heart failure. In this condition, the heart's ability to pump blood effectively is compromised, leading to symptoms of congestion and decreased cardiac output. The decreased ejection fraction indicates that the heart is not able to efficiently pump out blood with each contraction. Dilatation of the left ventricle is a compensatory mechanism in response to increased volume overload.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium carbonate as a phosphate binder. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient regarding calcium carbonate administration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium carbonate should be taken with meals because it requires the presence of stomach acid to be properly absorbed. Taking it with meals helps ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness as a phosphate binder in patients with chronic kidney disease. Administering calcium carbonate on an empty stomach may lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as upset stomach, bloating, and constipation. Taking it with a full glass of water is also recommended to help prevent potential gastrointestinal issues and to ensure proper hydration. Crushing tablets before administration is not advised unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider, as it can alter the drug's release and absorption properties.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a severe viral infection exhibits reduced levels of circulating lymphocytes. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for this observation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A patient with a severe viral infection exhibiting reduced levels of circulating lymphocytes is likely due to the apoptosis of infected lymphocytes. When a virus enters the body, it can infect and replicate within lymphocytes, subsequently triggering the immune system to induce apoptosis in infected cells to prevent further spread of the virus. This process is part of the body's defense mechanism to control the viral infection. As a result, the circulating lymphocyte levels may decrease as infected lymphocytes are targeted for apoptosis. This phenomenon helps to limit viral replication and spread within the body, thereby aiding in the immune response to eliminate the virus.
Question 4 of 9
The client being admitted to the oncology unit conveys his wishes regarding resuscitation in the event of cardiopulmonary arrest. The nurse advises the client that it would be in his best interest to obtain which document?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences and wishes regarding medical treatment, including resuscitation, in the event they become unable to communicate or make decisions. In this scenario, the client being admitted to the oncology unit wants to convey his wishes regarding resuscitation in case of cardiopulmonary arrest. A living will helps ensure that these wishes are known and respected by healthcare providers and loved ones. While a will addresses how a person's assets should be distributed after death and a health care power of attorney designates someone to make medical decisions on the person's behalf, a living will specifically focuses on healthcare preferences and treatment decisions. A proxy directive is similar to a health care power of attorney, designating someone to make healthcare decisions for the person if they are unable to do so themselves.
Question 5 of 9
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), the biologic marker on which pregnancy tests are based, can be detected in the BLOOD as early as which nber of DAYS after the last menstrual period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) can be detected in the blood as early as 10 days after the last menstrual period. This hormone is produced by the placenta shortly after the embryo attaches to the uterine lining. Pregnancy tests detect HCG levels to determine pregnancy status, and the hormone can be detected earlier in the blood compared to urine tests. Detecting HCG in the blood at around 10 days post ovulation is often the earliest point when a blood test can confirm pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
She was asked by the nurse supervisor about her concern and what are the considered ideal fetal positions for a healthy delivery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The considered ideal fetal position for a healthy delivery is left transverse anterior with moderate flexion. This position allows for an easier descent through the birth canal and reduces the chances of complications during delivery. This position is optimal for a smoother and safer delivery process for both the mother and the baby.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is preparing to assist with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) insertion for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to maintain procedural asepsis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize cleansing the insertion site with an alcohol-based antiseptic solution to maintain procedural asepsis during a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) insertion. Proper skin preparation is essential in reducing the risk of introducing pathogens into the patient's bloodstream during the insertion process. Alcohol-based antiseptic solutions are effective in reducing the number of microorganisms on the skin surface. Wearing sterile gloves and following other sterile techniques are also crucial, but preparing the insertion site with the antiseptic solution is the initial step in maintaining asepsis during the procedure.
Question 8 of 9
The foundation of medication administration is the application for the "Rights of Medication Administration." which of the following is NOT included in these rights?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The "Rights of Medication Administration" include the following fundamental principles to ensure safe medication administration: right patient, right medication, right dosage, right route, right time, and right documentation. The price of the medication is not a part of these essential rights. These rights help to prevent medication errors and ensure that patients receive the correct medication in the correct way.
Question 9 of 9
Which assessment findings is INDICATIVE of the diagnosis of hypertension?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The assessment finding that is indicative of the diagnosis of hypertension is consistent evaluation of blood pressure. Hypertension is diagnosed based on repeated measurements of elevated blood pressure. Consistently high blood pressure readings, usually defined as systolic blood pressure consistently at or above 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure consistently at or above 90 mmHg, are a key factor in diagnosing hypertension. Family history of high blood pressure (Choice A), elevation of blood cholesterol level (Choice B), and a stressful work environment (Choice C) may be risk factors for hypertension but are not diagnostic criteria. In order to diagnose hypertension, healthcare providers rely on consistent measurement and evaluation of blood pressure over time.