ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with swelling of the ankles, dyspnea on exertion, and orthopnea. An echocardiogram reveals decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and dilated left ventricle. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's presentation of swelling of the ankles, dyspnea on exertion, and orthopnea is highly suggestive of heart failure. The echocardiogram findings of decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and dilated left ventricle are characteristic of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), also known as systolic heart failure. In this condition, the heart's ability to pump blood effectively is compromised, leading to symptoms of congestion and decreased cardiac output. The decreased ejection fraction indicates that the heart is not able to efficiently pump out blood with each contraction. Dilatation of the left ventricle is a compensatory mechanism in response to increased volume overload.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with gross hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable abdominal mass. Imaging reveals a large heterogeneous renal mass with areas of necrosis and calcifications. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of gross hematuria, flank pain, palpable abdominal mass, along with imaging findings of a large heterogeneous renal mass with necrosis and calcifications are highly suggestive of renal cell carcinoma (RCC). RCC is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults. The presence of necrosis and calcifications are characteristic features of RCC. Imaging modalities such as CT scans or MRI can confirm the diagnosis by showing the typical features of RCC, including a solid mass with areas of necrosis and calcifications. It is important to further evaluate this patient, likely with a biopsy, to confirm the diagnosis and determine the extent of the disease for appropriate management.
Question 3 of 9
The immunity conferred by tetanus toxoid is best described as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tetanus toxoid provides long-lasting active immunity. When a person is vaccinated with tetanus toxoid, their immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against the tetanus toxin. These antibodies provide protection against tetanus infection by recognizing and neutralizing the toxin if the person is exposed to the bacteria that causes tetanus in the future. This active immune response can last for many years, providing ongoing protection against tetanus. However, booster doses are recommended every 10 years to maintain adequate levels of protection.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with a pruritic, erythematous rash with scaly plaques and satellite papules and pustules in the inguinal folds and gluteal cleft. The patient reports recent antibiotic use for a urinary tract infection. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described indicates a candidal infection, which commonly occurs in warm, moist body areas like inguinal folds and gluteal cleft. The pruritic, erythematous rash with scaly plaques and satellite papules and pustules is characteristic of cutaneous candidiasis. The recent antibiotic use for urinary tract infection likely disrupted the normal skin flora, predisposing the patient to a Candida overgrowth. Tinea cruris (jock itch) can also present similarly, but the presence of satellite papules and pustules is more indicative of candidiasis. Erythrasma typically presents as well-defined brown-red patches without satellite lesions, and intertrigo is a more generic term referring to inflammation of skin folds that can have various causes, including candidiasis.
Question 5 of 9
During a support group meeting, Nurse Donato, in a teasing manner, has made several provocative remarks about your appearance and behavior as a group leader. Select your MOST appropriate response.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choosing option D, "Donato, what you are saying is inappropriate," is the most appropriate response in this situation. It directly addresses Nurse Donato's behavior without escalating the situation or being overly confrontational. By calmly pointing out that the remarks are inappropriate, you are setting a boundary and letting Nurse Donato know that such behavior is not acceptable in a professional setting. This response also signals to the rest of the group that you are aware of the inappropriate comments and are taking action to address them. It is important to address such behavior professionally and assertively to maintain a respectful and supportive environment during the support group meeting.
Question 6 of 9
A 28-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea that worsens during menstruation. On pelvic examination, tender nodules are palpated along the uterosacral ligaments. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation of lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia (pain during sexual intercourse), dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and tender nodules along the uterosacral ligaments is highly suggestive of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that lines the uterus (endometrium) grows outside the uterus, commonly on the pelvic organs such as the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and the peritoneum. The characteristic tender nodules along the uterosacral ligaments are known as "nodularity" and are a classic finding in endometriosis.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse educator Adalynn reviewed the risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage for the mothers. Which of the following factors IS NOT included ____?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a significant complication after childbirth. The risk factors for PPH that are typically included in the list are uterine atony, overdistended uterus (e.g., multiple gestation or polyhydramnios), and ruptured uterus. Retroversion of the uterus is not a known risk factor for PPH. Retroversion refers to the position of the uterus, where it is tilted back towards the rectum. While retroverted uterus can sometimes lead to other issues or complications during pregnancy, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 8 of 9
Nurse Mauve should plan to initiate which action to provide a safe environment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Taking off the room lights and drawing the window shades would provide a calm and soothing environment for the five-year-old patient admitted due to pneumonia with symptoms of cough, respiratory distress, anxiety, and dehydration. By creating a dim and quiet atmosphere, it can help reduce the child's anxiety levels, promote rest and relaxation, and potentially aid in the management of distress caused by pneumonia. Providing a quiet and dark environment can also support the child's comfort and recovery process during the hospital stay.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is prescribed a benzodiazepine for the management of insomnia. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed for the management of insomnia due to their sedative effects. One of the most common adverse effects of benzodiazepines is daytime drowsiness, which can impair the patient's ability to function normally during the day. Monitoring the patient closely for daytime drowsiness is important to ensure their safety and well-being, as it can affect their daily activities and increase the risk of accidents or falls. It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient on the potential for daytime drowsiness and advise them to avoid activities that require full alertness, such as driving or operating heavy machinery, until they know how the medication affects them. If the patient experiences severe or persistent daytime drowsiness, the healthcare provider may need to adjust the dosage or consider alternative treatment options.