A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the right middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the right middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient is presenting with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech, which are classic symptoms of a stroke. The involvement of the right middle cerebral artery territory on imaging suggests an acute infarction, confirming an ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs due to a blockage or obstruction within a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients reaching brain tissue. This results in neurological deficits corresponding to the affected area of the brain. In contrast, a transient ischemic attack (TIA) would present with similar symptoms but resolve within 24 hours without evidence of acute infarction on imaging. Intracerebral hemorrhage and subarachnoid hemorrhage involve bleeding into the brain tissue or the space surrounding the brain, respectively, resulting in different clinical presentations.

Question 2 of 5

times. II before removing from the shelf. III before measuring actual dose. IV before opening a unit dose-container.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is important to check the medication label against the medication order before administering any medication to ensure accuracy.

Question 3 of 5

An 80-years-old male, admitted for emergency suturing of the forehead sustained from accident fall while gardening under local sedation us received in the ward. Which nursing intervention is APPROPRIATE to facilitate effective communication with this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the most appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate effective communication with the 80-year-old male patient. This approach involves waiting for the patient to be fully awake before discussing important information about the surgery and potential post-surgery events with both the patient and family. This allows the patient to fully comprehend the information provided and ask any necessary questions. Effective communication is crucial in promoting patient understanding and cooperation, especially in older adults who may require additional time to process information due to factors such as age-related cognitive changes. It is important to ensure that the patient receives clear and accurate information to support their recovery process and reduce anxiety.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse did an admission procedure. The best position to be assumed by Roy is _____.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient to assume during an admission procedure, particularly for respiratory assessment, is the semi-fowler position at least 30 degrees. In the semi-fowler position, the patient's head and upper body are elevated to a 30-degree angle. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and enhancing chest expansion. It also facilitates breathing and allows for better assessment of respiratory status. Additionally, the semi-fowler position helps prevent aspiration and promotes comfort and relaxation for the patient during the admission procedure.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with a painless, slowly enlarging mass in the right neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm and centrally located nuclei. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The described presentation of a painless, slowly enlarging mass in the right neck just above the clavicle, along with the cytology findings of clusters of polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm and centrally located nuclei, is classic for parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign tumors arising from one of the parathyroid glands, which are typically located in the neck region close to the thyroid gland. The clear cytoplasm and centrally located nuclei of the cells are characteristic histological features of parathyroid adenomas. This condition can often lead to hyperparathyroidism, characterized by increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and hypercalcemia. Treatment involves surgical removal of the adenoma.

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