A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago but have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago but have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech that partially resolved within 30 minutes is more consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) rather than an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary decreases in blood flow to a specific area of the brain, leading to transient neurological deficits that typically last for less than 24 hours. In this case, the symptoms partially resolving suggest a temporary and reversible ischemic event, characteristic of a TIA. Ischemic strokes involve more prolonged or permanent impairment due to blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, while hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding within the brain tissue or the surrounding membranes.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a tumor compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pituitary adenoma is the most likely neurological condition responsible for the described symptoms of acute onset severe headache, visual disturbances, and altered mental status when a tumor is found compressing the optic chiasm. Pituitary adenomas are benign tumors arising from the pituitary gland located at the base of the brain. As the tumor grows, it can compress nearby structures such as the optic chiasm, leading to visual disturbances (due to pressure on the optic nerves), severe headache (due to increased intracranial pressure), and altered mental status (due to effects on nearby brain structures).

Question 3 of 5

When communicating with a patient who speaks a different language, what is the nurse's best approach?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Using professional medical interpreters is the best approach when communicating with a patient who speaks a different language. This ensures accurate communication and helps prevent misunderstandings that can have serious consequences for the patient's health. Family members or friends may not be fluent in the necessary medical terminology and could unintentionally misinterpret information. Relying solely on written instructions can also be risky as the patient may have difficulty reading or comprehending the information. Speaking loudly and slowly may come across as disrespectful and does not address the root issue of the language barrier. Professional medical interpreters are trained to facilitate effective communication between healthcare providers and patients, ensuring that the patient receives the best possible care.

Question 4 of 5

A patient expresses frustration with the healthcare system's inefficiencies. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response when a patient expresses frustration with the healthcare system's inefficiencies is to listen actively to the patient's concerns, acknowledge the challenges they are facing, and offer support. It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's feelings and demonstrate empathy, rather than dismissing or ignoring their frustrations. By offering support and showing understanding, the nurse can help the patient feel heard and valued, which is an essential aspect of providing patient-centered care. This approach can also help to strengthen the nurse-patient relationship and build trust, ultimately leading to better outcomes for the patient's overall healthcare experience.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic signs of diabetes mellitus. In this case, the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and glycosuria (glucose in the urine) further support the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Insulin deficiency or resistance in diabetes leads to impaired glucose utilization and excessive glucose in the bloodstream, causing the classic symptoms observed in the patient. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and Cushing's syndrome do not typically present with the hallmark symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.

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