ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a hyperdense lesion within the brain parenchyma, suggestive of acute bleeding. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intracerebral hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding directly into the brain parenchyma, leading to the sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and neurological deficits. The hyperdense lesion seen on imaging is caused by the presence of blood within the brain tissue. This condition is often associated with hypertension and can be life-threatening if not promptly diagnosed and managed. Subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood between the brain and its outermost covering (dura mater), typically presenting with a slower onset of symptoms compared to intracerebral hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage involves bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (subarachnoid space), commonly caused by the rupture of an aneurysm. Ischemic stroke results from the blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of multiple fluid-filled sacs within the ovaries and is associated with menstrual irregularities and hyperandrogenism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder in women of reproductive age. It is characterized by the presence of multiple fluid-filled sacs (cysts) within the ovaries, which can be visualized on ultrasound. Women with PCOS often experience menstrual irregularities such as irregular periods or no periods, as well as symptoms of hyperandrogenism like hirsutism (excessive hair growth) and acne. Other common features of PCOS include insulin resistance and obesity. It is important to note that not all women with PCOS will have ovarian cysts, but the presence of multiple cysts is a common finding in this condition.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described in the question is most consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia in the affected eye. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (reddening of the conjunctiva and episclera), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light (miosis). This occurs due to inflammation within the anterior chamber of the eye involving the iris and ciliary body.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with a rash characterized by erythematous papules and vesicles arranged in a linear distribution. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scabies is a contagious skin infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The classic presentation of scabies includes a rash characterized by erythematous papules and vesicles that are arranged in a linear or burrow-like distribution. These linear tracks are often seen in areas such as the interdigital spaces, wrists, elbows, axillae, belt line, and genitalia. It is commonly associated with intense itching, especially at night. Unlike psoriasis, which presents with silvery scales and well-defined borders, or contact dermatitis, which results from exposure to a specific allergen or irritant, scabies is caused by a parasitic mite infestation. Atopic dermatitis, on the other hand, is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by pruritic eczematous lesions, but it typically does not manifest with a linear distribution of lesions like scabies.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with multiple, hyperpigmented, velvety plaques in flexural areas such as the axillae and neck. The lesions are associated with obesity and insulin resistance. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acanthosis nigricans is a skin condition characterized by multiple, hyperpigmented, velvety plaques typically seen in flexural areas such as the axillae, neck, and groin. These lesions are often associated with obesity and insulin resistance. The appearance of acanthosis nigricans is distinct from other skin conditions such as seborrheic keratosis, dermatofibroma, and epidermal nevus. Acanthosis nigricans is commonly seen in conditions like obesity, type 2 diabetes, and metabolic syndrome due to the insulin resistance that leads to the overgrowth of keratinocytes.
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