ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a hyperdense lesion within the brain parenchyma, suggestive of acute bleeding. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intracerebral hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding directly into the brain parenchyma, leading to the sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and neurological deficits. The hyperdense lesion seen on imaging is caused by the presence of blood within the brain tissue. This condition is often associated with hypertension and can be life-threatening if not promptly diagnosed and managed. Subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood between the brain and its outermost covering (dura mater), typically presenting with a slower onset of symptoms compared to intracerebral hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage involves bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (subarachnoid space), commonly caused by the rupture of an aneurysm. Ischemic stroke results from the blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following statements is NOT true of Pneumothorax?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pneumothorax, air enters the normally negative pressure space between the lung and chest wall, leading to loss of negative intra-pleural pressure. However, this loss of negative pressure typically does not directly result in lung collapse. Instead, the accumulation of air in the pleural space can lead to a pressure imbalance, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely, which is known as atelectasis. Therefore, it is more accurate to state that the loss of negative intra-pleural pressure can result in lung collapse due to the presence of air in the pleural space, rather than the loss of negative pressure itself causing the collapse.
Question 3 of 9
One of the post-caesarian patients has a private duty nurse and is responsible for providing holistic care to her patient during the shift. What modality of nursing care is implemented?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Total care nursing is a nursing care delivery model where one nurse is assigned to provide comprehensive care to a patient for an entire shift. In this case, the private duty nurse is providing holistic care to the post-caesarian patient during the shift, which aligns with the principles of total care nursing. This approach allows the nurse to focus on the individual needs of the patient and provide all aspects of care, promoting continuity and personalized attention. Total care nursing ensures that the patient receives consistent and dedicated care from the same nurse, enhancing the patient's overall experience and outcomes.
Question 4 of 9
In the care of families, crisis intervention is an important part of _____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crisis intervention is an important part of secondary prevention in the care of families. Secondary prevention involves activities that aim to reduce the impact of a crisis or event that has already occurred. Crisis intervention provides immediate support and strategies to help families cope with and overcome a crisis situation. By addressing the crisis quickly and effectively, secondary prevention can help prevent further negative outcomes and promote the well-being of the family members.
Question 5 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage liver disease develops hepatic encephalopathy, presenting with confusion and altered mental status. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing hepatic encephalopathy in this patient receiving palliative care for end-stage liver disease is to administer lactulose or other ammonia-lowering agents to reduce ammonia levels. Hepatic encephalopathy is believed to be primarily caused by the accumulation of ammonia in the bloodstream due to compromised liver function. Lactulose works by acidifying the gut lumen, which facilitates the excretion of ammonia in the form of ammonium ions. By reducing ammonia levels, hepatic encephalopathy symptoms, such as confusion and altered mental status, can be improved. Initiating other supportive measures like managing precipitating factors, maintaining hydration, and addressing nutritional issues should also be part of the holistic approach in managing hepatic encephalopathy in palliative care. However, addressing the underlying cause by reducing ammonia levels with lactulose is the priority intervention in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
What symptom is an INDICATOR of cranial nerve involvement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Difficulty of speaking and chewing is an indicator of cranial nerve involvement. Cranial nerves are responsible for controlling various functions of the head and neck, including speech and mastication. Impairment of cranial nerve function can lead to difficulty in these activities. In the context of the question, with the patient in the stroke unit, cranial nerve involvement can occur due to the stroke affecting the brain regions responsible for cranial nerve function. Loss of pain sensation, spastic paralysis of the extremities, and forgetfulness with syncope are not specific indicators of cranial nerve involvement in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A woman in active labor is diagnosed with an obstetric emergency requiring immediate delivery. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the situation of an obstetric emergency requiring immediate delivery, the priority nursing action is to prepare the delivery room for the birth. This involves ensuring that all necessary supplies and equipment are readily available, the bed is adjusted to the appropriate position, and the healthcare team is prepared to assist with the birth. By expeditiously preparing the delivery room, the healthcare team can facilitate a safe and timely delivery for both the mother and the baby. Notifications to the healthcare provider, administering intravenous fluids, and continuous fetal monitoring can be done simultaneously but preparing the delivery room takes precedence to ensure a prompt response to the emergent situation.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following imaging modalities is most appropriate for evaluating suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) in a pregnant patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a pregnant patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), the most appropriate imaging modality for evaluation is contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography. This imaging technique has been shown to be safe for the fetus when necessary, especially if the benefits of making a diagnosis outweigh the minimal risks associated with radiation exposure. It provides quick and accurate detection of PE with high sensitivity and specificity.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed famotidine (Pepcid) for gastric acid suppression. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about famotidine therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Famotidine belongs to a class of medications known as H2 blockers which work to reduce the production of stomach acid. Antacids, on the other hand, work by neutralizing stomach acid. Taking antacids in conjunction with famotidine can decrease the effectiveness of famotidine as they can interfere with its absorption. Therefore, it is important for the patient to avoid taking antacids while on famotidine therapy to ensure optimal treatment outcomes for gastric acid suppression.