A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits. Imaging reveals a hemorrhagic lesion within the right basal ganglia. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Intracerebral hemorrhage occurs when there is bleeding directly into the brain tissue, often due to conditions such as hypertension or vascular malformations. The sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits described in the patient are typical symptoms of an intracerebral hemorrhage. The location of the hemorrhagic lesion within the right basal ganglia corresponds to the clinical presentation. Ischemic stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and transient ischemic attack (TIA) typically have different presentations and imaging findings compared to an intracerebral hemorrhage. Therefore, in this scenario, intracerebral hemorrhage is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with chronic kidney disease presenting with metabolic acidosis, the compensatory mechanism the body is most likely to employ to normalize pH is increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining acid-base balance by regulating bicarbonate levels in the blood. In metabolic acidosis, there is an excess of non-volatile acids in the body, leading to a decrease in blood pH. To compensate for this acidosis, the kidneys increase the reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate ions from the renal tubules back into the blood. This process helps to raise the bicarbonate levels in the blood, which in turn helps to neutralize excess hydrogen ions and restore the blood pH towards normal levels. Hyperventilation (A) is a compensatory mechanism for respiratory acidosis, not metabolic acidosis. Increased renal excretion of hydrogen ions (C) and decreased renal excretion of bicarbonate ions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The pharmacist is legally responsible in this situation because they are the healthcare professional authorized to dispense medications according to the physician's order. In this case, the physician ordered a dose higher than the maximum safe dose recommended based on the infant's current weight. While the nurse administers the medication, the pharmacist has the responsibility to ensure that the correct dose is dispensed and to alert the physician if there is a discrepancy in the order. If the pharmacist dispensed the incorrect dose without verifying with the physician, they would bear legal responsibility for any adverse effects resulting from the medication error.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to sepsis in the ICU, the healthcare team should prioritize initiating continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) for renal replacement therapy. CVVH is a form of continuous renal replacement therapy that helps support renal function by removing waste products, excess fluids, and electrolytes from the blood while providing hemodynamic stability. This intervention is crucial in managing fluid overload, electrolyte disturbances, and uremia associated with AKI in critically ill patients. It can also help improve overall outcomes and prevent further complications related to renal dysfunction in this setting. Administering diuretics, implementing fluid restriction, or performing a renal biopsy may not directly address the acute renal failure and may not provide the necessary renal support needed in this urgent situation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Plasmodium falciparum, which is the parasite that causes malaria. The symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia following a camping trip are highly suggestive of malaria, especially if the patient has thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Plasmodium falciparum is known to cause severe malaria with complications such as thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The other options, Trypanosoma cruzi, Borrelia burgdorferi, and Leishmania donovani, do not typically present with all of the symptoms described and are not associated with the laboratory findings of thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acute splenic sequestration crisis is a complication seen in patients with sickle cell disease characterized by the sudden pooling of sickled red blood cells in the spleen, leading to splenic enlargement, severe anemia, and hypovolemic shock. This pooling results in a rapid drop in hemoglobin levels, causing anemia. The spleen's sequestration of large numbers of red blood cells can cause a sudden rise in the number of immature red blood cells (reticulocytes) in the blood (reticulocytosis). The destruction of these trapped red blood cells in the spleen leads to hemolysis, evidenced by elevated indirect bilirubin levels and the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear remnants of erythrocytes) on peripheral blood smear. Patients may present with severe abdominal pain, fever, jaundice, and signs of hemodynamic instability, which

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Verbal communication involves the use of words and language to convey information. The content refers to the actual words and messages being communicated. In verbal communication with your patient, the content of what you say is key to ensuring effective communication that is clear, accurate, and easily understood. Therefore, the use of literal words when speaking to your patient embodies the content of your communication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In primary care nursing, typically, one nurse is designated to have 24-hour responsibility for care planning and coordination for each patient. This helps ensure continuity of care and accountability. By having one nurse overseeing all aspects of the patient's care, it allows for a more personalized and coordinated approach that puts the patient at the center of the care structure. Having one primary care nurse also promotes better communication, efficiency, and consistency in managing the patient's health and well-being.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of a pruritic, annular rash with fine scaling and central clearing, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities, following exposure to a new soap and laundry detergent is most consistent with tinea corporis, commonly known as ringworm. Ringworm is a superficial fungal infection caused by dermatophytes that can present with circular or annular lesions with central clearing and scaling. The exposure to new soap and laundry detergent may have disrupted the skin's microbiome, making it more vulnerable to fungal infections like tinea corporis. Nummular eczema typically presents as coin-shaped plaques rather than annular lesions, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by smaller similar lesions in a "Christmas tree" distribution. Lichen planus would not typically be associated with exposure to new soap and laundry detergent but can have distinct purple, polygonal papules.