Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits. Imaging reveals a hemorrhagic lesion within the subarachnoid space. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A subarachnoid hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding within the subarachnoid space, the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater surrounding the brain. Patients typically present with a sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits due to the mass effect of the blood in the subarachnoid space. Imaging, such as a CT scan, can confirm the presence of the hemorrhagic lesion. Ischemic stroke results from a blockage in the blood vessels supplying the brain, leading to tissue infarction and neurological deficits. Subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, commonly seen following head trauma. Intracerebral hemorrhage involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself, often leading to focal neurological deficits.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with petechiae, purpura, and mucosal bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia, elevated serum creatinine, and schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare but serious condition characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological abnormalities, fever, and renal dysfunction. The classic pentad of symptoms includes fever, neurologic changes, renal impairment, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. The presence of petechiae, purpura, and mucosal bleeding along with thrombocytopenia, elevated serum creatinine, and schistocytes on peripheral blood smear are consistent with TTP. In TTP, there is usually a deficiency of ADAMTS13 (a von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease) leading to excessive platelet adhesion, aggregation, and microthrombi formation within small blood vessels. Treatment typically

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset severe lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and inability to pass urine. On physical examination, there is suprapubic tenderness and a palpable bladder. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with sudden-onset severe lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass urine, suprapubic tenderness, and a palpable bladder is classic for acute urinary retention. Acute urinary retention is a urological emergency characterized by the sudden inability to pass urine due to the inability to empty the bladder completely. The palpable bladder on physical examination indicates significant bladder distension. This condition can be caused by multiple factors such as bladder outlet obstruction, neurogenic causes, or medications affecting bladder function. Prompt intervention is necessary to relieve the bladder distension, alleviate symptoms, and prevent complications like bladder rupture.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation of a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, above the clavicle, along with the cytology showing clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm is most indicative of a parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign tumors derived from the parathyroid gland that can produce excess parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hyperparathyroidism. The characteristic histology of parathyroid adenomas includes chief cells with abundant granular cytoplasm.

Question 5 of 5

Rilutekis the only drug approved by the FDA for treatments of ALS. Which of the following would you observe when administering the medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When administering Rilutek (riluzole), the medication should be taken with food. This is because taking Rilutek with food helps to reduce the likelihood of experiencing stomach upset as a side effect. Administering the medication on an empty stomach may increase the risk of gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, vomiting, or stomach pain. Therefore, it is recommended to administer Rilutek with food to ensure better tolerability for the patient.

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