A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, a cherry-red spot at the macula, and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). CRAO occurs when the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the inner retinal layers, becomes occluded. The cherry-red spot is due to the exposure of the underlying choroid, which still appears red as it is not affected by the blockage. Attenuated retinal vessels and a pale retina may also be seen due to ischemia. In contrast, central retinal vein occlusion (choice B) presents with sudden painless vision loss, retinal hemorrhages, dilated retinal veins, and cotton-wool spots. Retinal detachment (choice C) typically presents with flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like shadow across the vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (

Question 2 of 9

The patient has been ordered a regimen to treat a urinary tract infection and notifies the nurse that the patient's urine has turned an orange color. The nurse recognizes that the patient is most likely being treated with which drug?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Phenazopyridine HCl (Pyridium) is a medication commonly used to relieve the pain, burning, and discomfort associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs). One of the notable side effects of Phenazopyridine is the discoloration of urine, turning it a rusty-red or orange color. This color change is harmless and temporary, but it can be alarming to patients who are unaware of this side effect. Therefore, if a patient undergoing treatment for a UTI notices their urine has turned orange, it is most likely due to the administration of Phenazopyridine.

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the trunk and extensor surfaces of the limbs. The patient reports a family history of similar skin lesions. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation of well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the trunk and extensor surfaces of the limbs is classic for psoriasis. Additionally, the family history of similar skin lesions further supports the diagnosis of psoriasis, as it is a condition with a genetic predisposition. Pityriasis rosea typically presents with a herald patch followed by oval, scaly lesions in a Christmas tree pattern. Erythema multiforme is characterized by target-like lesions. Lichen planus presents as purple, polygonal, flat-topped papules that may have fine white lines on their surface known as Wickham striae.

Question 4 of 9

Which is the APPROPRIATE way to correct an error in the Nurses Notes?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate way to correct an error in the Nurses Notes is to draw a single line across the error and initial it. This method is recommended because it indicates that there was an error made, while still preserving the original information for audit and legal purposes. It shows transparency and accountability in documentation, as the original information remains visible. Taking the whole page out and replacing it with a fresh one can lead to discrepancies and potential legal issues if there are inconsistencies in the documentation. Using methods like using the sticky side of the plastic tape or a rubber eraser can make the documentation look unprofessional and raises questions about the accuracy and integrity of the notes.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and signs of hypotension. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST- segment elevation in the inferior leads. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension, and ST-segment elevation on an ECG in the inferior leads are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction (MI). An acute MI occurs when there is a sudden blockage of blood flow to a part of the heart muscle, leading to tissue damage. This causes symptoms such as chest pain due to ischemia, dyspnea due to heart failure, and hypotension due to poor cardiac output. The ST-segment elevation seen on the ECG is indicative of significant myocardial injury. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in acute MI to prevent further complications and to minimize damage to the heart muscle. It is important to differentiate an acute MI from stable or unstable angina or other cardiovascular disorders, as the management and prognosis vary significantly.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following conditions is characterized by an abnormal enlargement of the prostate gland, leading to lower urinary tract symptoms such as urinary hesitancy, weak urinary stream, and incomplete bladder emptying?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a condition characterized by an abnormal enlargement of the prostate gland, which is non-cancerous. This enlargement can lead to lower urinary tract symptoms such as urinary hesitancy (difficulty starting the urine stream), weak urinary stream, incomplete bladder emptying, frequent urination, urgency, and nocturia. BPH is a common condition in aging men and is not usually associated with prostate cancer. Other conditions like prostate cancer, prostatitis, and prostate adenoma may present with similar symptoms, but BPH is specifically characterized by the non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland. Treatment for BPH may include medications to improve symptoms or surgical procedures to reduce the size of the prostate gland.

Question 7 of 9

Nurse Nora observes that the Ellie's uterine contractions are irregular in frequency and short in duration. Ellie screams in pain during contractions. Which of the following actions is considered BEST for the nurse to perform?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Administering pain relief medication as ordered is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation where the patient is experiencing intense pain during irregular and short uterine contractions. Pain relief medications can help alleviate the discomfort and distress that Ellie is experiencing, providing her with much-needed relief and improving her overall comfort during labor. It is important for the nurse to follow the prescribed orders for pain relief medication to ensure safe and effective pain management for the patient.

Question 8 of 9

A postpartum client who delivered a macrosomic infant expresses concerns about breastfeeding difficulties due to the baby's size. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to support successful breastfeeding in this situation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Providing education on techniques to improve latch and milk transfer should be prioritized to support successful breastfeeding in this situation. Newborns who are macrosomic (large for gestational age) may have difficulties latching due to their size and may require additional support to effectively breastfeed. By educating the postpartum client on proper latch techniques and milk transfer, the nurse can help optimize the breastfeeding experience for both the mother and baby. This intervention focuses on addressing the specific concerns related to the infant's size and aims to promote successful breastfeeding despite potential challenges. As such, recommending supplemental formula feedings, encouraging the client to avoid breastfeeding, or immediately referring to a lactation consultant may not directly address the immediate need for support in improving breastfeeding in this situation.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following strategies would prove effective in preventing more incidence of dengue infection?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most effective strategy in preventing more incidence of dengue infection is to target the breeding places of the Aedes mosquitoes, which are the vectors responsible for transmitting the dengue virus. By eliminating stagnant water sources where these mosquitoes breed, such as uncovered containers, flower pots, and discarded tires, the mosquito population can be significantly reduced. This, in turn, helps to lower the risk of dengue transmission to humans. While healthy nutritious food, burning of leaves and garbage, and adequate rest and sleep are important for overall health and immune function, they do not directly address the primary cause of dengue transmission, which is the Aedes mosquito population.

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