ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, a cherry-red spot at the macula, and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). CRAO occurs when the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the inner retinal layers, becomes occluded. The cherry-red spot is due to the exposure of the underlying choroid, which still appears red as it is not affected by the blockage. Attenuated retinal vessels and a pale retina may also be seen due to ischemia. In contrast, central retinal vein occlusion (choice B) presents with sudden painless vision loss, retinal hemorrhages, dilated retinal veins, and cotton-wool spots. Retinal detachment (choice C) typically presents with flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like shadow across the vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (
Question 2 of 5
A woman in active labor is experiencing a shoulder dystocia during delivery. What nursing intervention should be prioritized?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Shoulder dystocia is an obstetric emergency where one of the baby's shoulders becomes impacted behind the mother's pubic bone after the head delivers. This can lead to compression of the umbilical cord and compromise fetal oxygenation. The most critical nursing intervention in managing shoulder dystocia is applying suprapubic pressure to dislodge the impacted shoulder and allow for delivery of the baby. By gently pushing downwards on the mother's abdomen just above the pubic bone, the shoulder can be released, and the baby can be delivered successfully. This intervention should be prioritized to prevent potential complications for both the mother and the baby. Episiotomy may be considered if necessary, but it is secondary to addressing the shoulder dystocia. Oropharyngeal airway insertion and administering magnesium sulfate are not indicated in the immediate management of shoulder dystocia.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite often found in contaminated water sources. This parasite is known to cause watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea in infected individuals. The presence of oocysts in the stool sample is characteristic of Cryptosporidium infection. Other parasitic infections may present with similar symptoms, but in this case, the most likely culprit based on the exposure history and laboratory findings is Cryptosporidium parvum.
Question 4 of 5
What is the appropriate sequence of steps in the assessment of a conscious trauma patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate sequence of steps in the assessment of a conscious trauma patient is the ABCDE approach, which stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse asks the patient, "What do you fear MOST about your surgery tomorrow?" This is an example of which communication technique?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is asking the patient to elaborate on their feelings and thoughts related to the upcoming surgery. By asking, "What do you fear MOST about your surgery tomorrow?" the nurse is seeking clarification to better understand the patient's concerns and enable effective communication. Seeking clarification involves asking open-ended questions that encourage the patient to express themselves more fully, allowing the healthcare provider to address their specific worries or needs more effectively.
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