A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, a cherry-red spot at the macula, and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). CRAO occurs when the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the inner retinal layers, becomes occluded. The cherry-red spot is due to the exposure of the underlying choroid, which still appears red as it is not affected by the blockage. Attenuated retinal vessels and a pale retina may also be seen due to ischemia. In contrast, central retinal vein occlusion (choice B) presents with sudden painless vision loss, retinal hemorrhages, dilated retinal veins, and cotton-wool spots. Retinal detachment (choice C) typically presents with flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like shadow across the vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The described presentation is classic for acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition is characterized by sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. The red eye, steamy cornea (corneal edema), and mid-dilated non-reactive pupil are consistent with acute angle-closure glaucoma. The sudden increase in intraocular pressure leads to impaired aqueous humor outflow, causing these symptoms. Immediate intervention is required to prevent permanent vision loss in such cases. Central retinal artery occlusion would present with sudden painless vision loss. Optic neuritis typically presents with vision loss and pain with eye movements. Corneal ulcer presents with eye discomfort, foreign body sensation, and may have a history of corneal trauma or contact lens wear.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The liver is responsible for secreting bile, which aids in the emulsification and digestion of fats. Bile is produced by the liver and is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder before being released into the small intestine to help with the breakdown of fats during the digestion process. The gallbladder functions as a storage organ for bile produced by the liver. The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate to aid in the digestion process, while the spleen is mainly involved in immune function and blood storage.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The salivary glands are responsible for the production of saliva, which aids in lubricating the oral cavity and initiating the digestion of carbohydrates. Saliva contains enzymes that begin the digestive process by breaking down carbohydrates into simpler sugars. The liver is involved in the production of bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, which is released into the small intestine. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that are released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with a suspected spinal injury is found unconscious, the priority action is to secure the airway without jeopardizing the cervical spine. A jaw thrust maneuver is the appropriate technique to open the airway in this situation because it allows for the maintenance of neutral alignment of the cervical spine while ensuring proper ventilation. Moving the patient to a flat surface or applying a cervical collar could potentially worsen the spinal injury if not done correctly, and checking for responsiveness should only be done after ensuring a patent airway. Therefore, the safest and most effective initial action is to perform a jaw thrust maneuver to establish a clear airway.