A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Central retinal artery occlusion. This condition presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, cherry-red spot at the macula due to lack of blood flow, and attenuated retinal vessels. The cherry-red spot is due to the transparency of the fovea when there is ischemia in the surrounding retina. Central retinal vein occlusion (B) presents with sudden vision loss accompanied by retinal hemorrhages and dilated tortuous veins. Retinal detachment (C) typically presents with sudden flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like visual field defect. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (D) presents with severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pancreas. The pancreas is responsible for producing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice. It secretes enzymes like amylase, lipase, and protease to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine. The bicarbonate-rich juice helps neutralize stomach acid. The liver (A) produces bile stored in the gallbladder (B), which aids in fat digestion. The spleen (D) is involved in immune function and blood filtration, not digestive enzyme production.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abrasion. Abrasion is the wearing away of tooth structure due to friction from external sources like toothbrushing or abrasive toothpaste. Dental caries (A) refers to tooth decay caused by bacteria. Attrition (B) is the wearing down of tooth structure due to tooth-to-tooth contact. Erosion (D) is the loss of tooth structure from acid attacks, not friction. Therefore, option C is the most fitting choice based on the description given.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess the severity of the reaction. This should be the first action taken because it helps determine the urgency of the situation and guides subsequent steps. Assessing the severity allows for appropriate intervention - from calling emergency services if the reaction is severe, to administering medication if necessary. A: Administering an epinephrine auto-injector should only be done if the severity of the reaction warrants it, as it is a potent medication that can have serious side effects if used inappropriately. B: Positioning the person comfortably is important, but assessing the severity of the reaction takes precedence to ensure prompt and appropriate care. C: Monitoring vital signs is important, but assessing the severity of the reaction is crucial in determining the immediate course of action.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transporting the patient to a medical facility for antivenom administration. This is recommended because antivenom is the definitive treatment for snakebites. Tourniquets (choice A) can worsen tissue damage and should be avoided. Elevating the limb (choice B) may not prevent venom spread. Making an incision (choice C) can lead to infection and increased venom absorption. Antivenom administration at a medical facility is crucial for proper management of snakebites.