A patient presents with sudden onset of weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

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Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with sudden onset of weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient is presenting with sudden onset weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech, which are typical symptoms of a stroke. Imaging revealing an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory is consistent with an ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs when there is a blockage in a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the affected area, resulting in neurological deficits. This is in contrast to an intracerebral hemorrhage, which is caused by bleeding into the brain tissue, or a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which involves bleeding into the space surrounding the brain. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a brief blockage of blood flow to a part of the brain, usually resolving within 24 hours. In this case, the presentation and imaging findings are most

Question 2 of 9

A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about PPI therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be instructed to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This is because PPIs work best when taken on an empty stomach, allowing them to inhibit the gastric proton pump effectively and reduce acid production in anticipation of food intake. Taking the medication before meals ensures optimal absorption and effectiveness in controlling symptoms of GERD.

Question 3 of 9

A patient admitted to the ICU develops severe sepsis with refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's septic shock?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, indicating the presence of septic shock. In septic shock, systemic vasodilation and vascular hyporesponsiveness contribute to hypotension. Therefore, the primary management approach is to restore vascular tone and blood pressure to maintain organ perfusion. Administering vasopressor medications (Choice A) is the crucial intervention to achieve this goal. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine or vasopressin, constrict blood vessels and increase blood pressure, helping to stabilize the patient in septic shock. While options B and C (performing blood cultures and initiating broad-spectrum antibiotics) are important for identifying the causative pathogen and treating the infection, they are secondary to the immediate need for hemodynamic support in septic shock. Prophylactic anticoagulation (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for

Question 4 of 9

A patient with terminal cancer is experiencing dyspnea due to pleural effusion. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The palliative nurse should prioritize performing thoracentesis to drain the pleural fluid and relieve dyspnea in a patient with terminal cancer experiencing pleural effusion. Pleural effusion is a common complication in patients with advanced cancer and can cause significant respiratory distress. Drainage of the pleural fluid through thoracentesis can provide immediate relief by easing the pressure on the lungs and improving the patient's ability to breathe. This intervention is essential in managing dyspnea for comfort and quality of life in palliative care settings. Administering bronchodilator medications (option A) or recommending non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (option C) may not directly address the underlying cause of dyspnea in this case. While relaxation techniques (option D) can help with anxiety and overall well-being, they may not be sufficient in managing the physical symptom of dyspnea caused by pleural effusion.

Question 5 of 9

The CI is expected to set the atmosphere by welcoming everyone and by _________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a professional setting like a classroom or a meeting, it is important for the CI (chief instructor) to set the atmosphere by welcoming everyone and discussing the objectives of the ward class. By discussing the objectives, the CI can provide a clear direction for the session and ensure that everyone is on the same page in terms of what needs to be accomplished. This not only helps focus the participants but also creates a sense of purpose and organization, setting a positive tone for the rest of the interaction. Showing a picture of the breast or giving an anecdote about an old man may not be appropriate or relevant in this context. Going ahead with the first part of the lecture without any welcoming or setting the atmosphere may make the participants feel rushed or disconnected from the session's purpose.

Question 6 of 9

When writting a memorandum, which of the following is the MOST important guideline

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When writing a memorandum, clarity in the content is the most important guideline to follow. It is crucial that the information provided in the memorandum is clearly understood by the recipients. Clear content ensures that the intended message is effectively communicated, reducing the possibility of confusion or misinterpretation. By focusing on clarity, the purpose of the memorandum can be effectively conveyed, maintaining professionalism and ensuring that the recipients are well-informed.

Question 7 of 9

Non verbal communication is the behavior that accompanies verbal communication, which of the following is NOT an indicator of this

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nonverbal communication consists of gestures, facial expressions, body language, posture, tone of voice, touch, and eye contact, among other behaviors. Option C, words representing an object, refers to verbal communication rather than nonverbal communication. Nonverbal communication is the behavior that accompanies verbal communication, providing additional layers of meaning and adding context to the spoken words. Therefore, words representing an object are not indicators of nonverbal communication.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by inflammation of the gingival tissues surrounding the teeth, often caused by poor oral hygiene?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Periodontitis is the dental condition characterized by inflammation of the gingival tissues surrounding the teeth. It is typically caused by poor oral hygiene practices, leading to plaque buildup and eventually gum disease. If left untreated, periodontitis can cause serious damage to the gum tissue and the underlying bones supporting the teeth, which can eventually result in tooth loss. Regular dental check-ups, proper oral hygiene habits, and professional cleanings are important for preventing and managing periodontitis.

Question 9 of 9

In her capacity to teach, the nurse describes the changes of the uterus after childbirth to return to a nonpregnant state as _____

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Involution refers to the process of the uterus returning to its nonpregnant state after childbirth. During pregnancy, the uterus undergoes significant changes and enlarges to accommodate the growing fetus. After childbirth, the uterus begins to contract, leading to a decrease in its size and a return to its pre-pregnant state. This process involves the shedding of the excess endometrial tissue and the reduction of the size of the uterine muscle fibers. It is a normal and essential process for postpartum recovery. Failure of the uterus to undergo proper involution is known as subinvolution, which can lead to complications such as postpartum hemorrhage.

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