ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.
Question 2 of 9
Norse Sophie checks the gauge of the patient ' s intravenous catheter. Which is the smallest gauge catheter that the nurse can use to administer blood?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20-Gauge. The smaller the gauge number, the larger the diameter of the catheter. Blood transfusions typically require a larger catheter size to prevent hemolysis and ensure proper flow. A 20-Gauge catheter is larger than 22-Gauge, 18-Gauge, and 12-Gauge, making it suitable for administering blood. 22-Gauge is too small and can cause hemolysis, 18-Gauge is smaller than the recommended size for blood transfusions, and 12-Gauge is too large and can cause damage to the vein.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Question 4 of 9
To achieve organized work flow in the unit the staff must be aware of the head nurse's role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and delegation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. Supervision and delegation are essential in ensuring efficient and effective healthcare delivery. By supervising and delegating tasks appropriately, the head nurse can ensure that staff members are performing their duties competently, which ultimately leads to improved quality of patient care. Supervision helps in monitoring staff performance, providing feedback, and offering guidance when needed. Delegation ensures that tasks are allocated to the right staff members based on their skills and abilities, optimizing the workflow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of supervision and delegation, which is to enhance the quality of nursing care through effective oversight and task allocation.
Question 5 of 9
The physician inserted a chest tube drainage to Mr. Alda in order to help re-expand the lungs. Which of the following should you prepare FIRST as a nurse in case of emergency when the tube is accidentally disconnected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.
Question 6 of 9
A patient expresses distrust in the healthcare system due to previous negative experiences. What is the nurse's best approach to rebuild trust?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because actively listening, acknowledging the patient's concerns, and working towards rebuilding trust through transparency and reliability are essential steps in addressing distrust. By validating the patient's experiences and actively involving them in the process, the nurse can foster a supportive and trusting relationship. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns can further damage trust and undermine the patient's feelings. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the distrust can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust. Choice D is incorrect because telling the patient to trust the healthcare system without addressing their concerns is dismissive and unhelpful.
Question 7 of 9
Which diagnostic procedure is commonly used to establish the diagnosis of lung cancer which provides a detailed description of the tracheobronchial tree and allows for biopsies of suspicious areas?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bronchoscopy. This procedure involves inserting a thin, flexible tube with a camera through the mouth or nose to examine the tracheobronchial tree. It allows direct visualization of the airways, collection of tissue samples for biopsy, and detection of abnormalities like tumors. A: CT scan provides detailed images of the lungs but does not allow for direct tissue sampling. C: Sputum cytology involves examining sputum for cancer cells but may not provide accurate results. D: PET scan is used to detect metabolic activity in tissues, including tumors, but does not provide detailed visualization of the airways or allow for biopsies.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan reveals a mismatched defect. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. This is the most likely cause of the symptoms based on the presentation of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and a mismatched defect on the V/Q scan. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary artery. This can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. The V/Q scan showing a mismatched defect indicates a ventilation-perfusion mismatch, which is a classic finding in pulmonary embolism. Pericarditis (B), acute myocardial infarction (C), and aortic dissection (D) typically present with different sets of symptoms and do not match the V/Q scan findings in this case.
Question 9 of 9
In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.