ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.
Question 2 of 9
In her recommendation, Nurse Gina stated, elderly should be given independence. This means ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because independence for the elderly means they have the freedom to make choices and decisions about their own lives. This empowers them to live according to their preferences and values. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't consider individual circumstances; choice B is important but doesn't capture the essence of independence; choice D is too broad and doesn't specifically address the concept of personal autonomy and agency for the elderly.
Question 3 of 9
Upon entry of the patient to ER, the nurse must FIRST perform which nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cleanse the bite with soap and running water. This is the first nursing intervention because it is crucial to prevent infection. Cleaning the bite area helps remove bacteria and debris, reducing the risk of infection. Injecting with rabies immune globulin (choice A) and rabies vaccine (choice C) should be done later as per protocol after assessing the situation. Administering pain reliever (choice D) is important but not the first priority in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
Korino has been using meperidine and codeine for personal consumption. Which of the following does the nurse understand as the physiologic effect of these drugs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieves pain by increasing pain threshold. Meperidine and codeine are opioid analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, thus increasing the pain threshold and reducing the perception of pain. This leads to pain relief without necessarily affecting sexual stimulation (choice A), craving for alcohol (choice C), or concentration/alertness (choice D). The primary physiological effect of these drugs is to modulate the perception of pain, making choice B the most appropriate answer in this context.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with ecchymoses, mucosal bleeding, and altered mental status. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread activation of coagulation leading to consumption of clotting factors, resulting in prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer. This pattern matches the laboratory findings in the patient. In liver cirrhosis (choice A), there is a decrease in clotting factors synthesis, leading to prolonged PT but not aPTT. Hemophilia A (choice C) is a genetic disorder that affects specific clotting factors, typically leading to prolonged aPTT but not PT. Vitamin K deficiency (choice D) impairs the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to prolonged PT but not aPTT and low levels of factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Question 6 of 9
Which is the simple meaning of standards of nursing care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: How the nurse will behave. Standards of nursing care refer to the expected behaviors and practices that nurses should adhere to in providing quality care to patients. This encompasses ethical principles, professional conduct, and best practices in nursing. It is essential for nurses to follow these standards to ensure patient safety and quality outcomes. Explanation: - A: What protects the nurse. This choice is incorrect because standards of nursing care primarily focus on patient care and outcomes, rather than protecting the nurse. - C: How much work is done. This choice is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the behaviors and practices expected of nurses in providing quality care. - D: Ask the local officials. This choice is unrelated to the concept of standards of nursing care and is not relevant to the question.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of nephrolithiasis presents with sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin. On physical examination, there is tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal colic due to ureteral calculus. The sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin along with tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria are classic symptoms of kidney stones (ureteral calculus). The pain results from the obstruction of urine flow by the stone, leading to increased pressure and spasm in the ureter. Acute pyelonephritis (choice A) presents with fever, chills, and systemic symptoms. Renal artery embolism (choice B) typically presents with acute onset severe flank pain but is associated with risk factors like atrial fibrillation. Renal infarction (choice D) presents with sudden-onset severe flank pain but is less likely than ureteral calculus in a patient with a history of nephrolithiasis.
Question 8 of 9
Mr. M is receiving hospice care for a terminal illness. He wants to make sure his daughter is allowed to make any decisions regarding his care should he become unable to do so. What document would permit his daughter to do this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Durable power of attorney. This legal document allows Mr. M to appoint his daughter as his healthcare proxy, granting her the authority to make medical decisions on his behalf if he becomes incapacitated. A: Expressed contract involves clear terms agreed upon by both parties, not relevant here. B: Implied contract arises from actions rather than explicit agreement, not applicable in this situation. D: A living will outlines an individual's medical treatment preferences, but does not grant decision-making authority to another person.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following interventions is the KEY to increasing the survival rates of clients with lung cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking cessation. Smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer, so quitting smoking is crucial in preventing and improving survival rates. Smoking cessation reduces the risk of developing lung cancer and improves treatment outcomes. High-dose chemotherapy (A) may be part of the treatment plan, but quitting smoking is more impactful. Early bronchoscopy (C) and early detection (D) are important, but without addressing the root cause (smoking), the survival rates will not significantly increase.