A patient presents with severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. On examination, there is nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meningitis. The patient's symptoms of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, nuchal rigidity, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs are classic signs of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord, leading to these specific neurological symptoms. Migraine headache (A) typically presents with a throbbing headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headache with autonomic symptoms like tearing or nasal congestion, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) presents with sudden severe headache often described as "the worst headache of my life," and may cause neck stiffness, but typically does not present with photophobia or positive meningeal signs like Kernig and Brudzinski signs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tilt the head slightly forward and angle the bottle toward the side of the nostril. This method allows for proper administration of the spray into the nasal passage, ensuring effective delivery of the medication. Tilted head helps direct the spray towards the nasal cavity without causing discomfort or leakage. It also helps prevent the medication from dripping down the back of the throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Finishing instillation in one nostril before moving to the other can lead to uneven distribution of medication and reduced effectiveness. B: Inhaling quickly may cause irritation and discomfort to the mucous membranes due to the forceful intake of the spray. C: Blowing the nose after spraying can expel the medication before it has a chance to be absorbed, decreasing its efficacy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nasal polyps. Nasal polyps are benign growths that form in the nasal cavity and sinuses, leading to symptoms such as chronic nasal congestion, hyposmia, and anosmia. The presence of polypoid masses seen on nasal endoscopy is characteristic of nasal polyps. Rationale: 1. Chronic nasal congestion, hyposmia, and anosmia are common symptoms of nasal polyps. 2. Nasal endoscopy revealing polypoid masses confirms the presence of nasal polyps. 3. Allergic rhinitis may cause nasal congestion but does not typically present with polypoid masses. 4. Chronic sinusitis can cause nasal congestion but is usually associated with inflammation of the sinuses, not just polypoid masses. 5. A deviated nasal septum can lead to nasal congestion but does not typically cause polypoid masses obstructing the nasal cavity and sinuses.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse is to notify the anesthesia provider immediately (Option D). This is crucial because a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness during surgery could indicate a serious issue related to anesthesia administration. Notifying the anesthesia provider promptly allows for quick assessment and intervention to address the underlying cause, potentially preventing complications or even saving the patient's life. Administering a reversal agent (Option A) without proper evaluation by the anesthesia provider could be dangerous. Documenting the change in the patient's chart (Option B) is important but not the most immediate action. Checking the patient's vital signs (Option C) is also important but may not provide immediate insight into the cause of the change in consciousness.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the pregnant woman is presenting with severe abdominal pain, passage of tissue, and cervical dilation with products of conception protruding through the cervical os at 12 weeks gestation. These are classic signs and symptoms of an incomplete abortion. Incomplete abortion occurs when not all of the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. It can present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, cervical dilation, and passage of tissue. The management of incomplete abortion may involve expectant, medical, or surgical options depending on the clinical context and the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: pulse rates. Pulse rates can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement because they have a true zero point and allow for meaningful ratios to be calculated. This means that we can perform operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division on pulse rate data. In contrast, the other options (A: eye color, C: ethnicity, D: gender) are categorical data that do not have a true zero point and therefore cannot be analyzed on the ratio level. Eye color, ethnicity, and gender are all examples of nominal data which only allow for qualitative classification and do not have a numerical value that can be used in mathematical operations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Salary of nurses. In a study, the researcher is likely to exclude salary as it is not directly related to the quality of patient care. The focus should be on factors like responsiveness, caring attitude, and competence of nurses, which directly impact patient outcomes. Including salary may introduce bias and distract from the main objective of studying patient care quality. Responsiveness, caring attitude, and competence are crucial aspects of nursing care that directly influence patient satisfaction and health outcomes. Salary, on the other hand, is an external factor that may not directly correlate with the quality of care provided.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.