Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this scenario is epididymitis. Epididymitis is an inflammation of the epididymis, a coiled tube at the back of the testicle that stores and carries sperm. Common symptoms include scrotal pain, swelling, erythema (redness), and a tender, fluctuant mass in the scrotum due to an abscess. Risk factors for epididymitis include urinary tract infections, sexually transmitted infections (such as gonorrhea or chlamydia), and recent urological procedures. It is important to differentiate epididymitis from testicular torsion, which would present with sudden, severe testicular pain, absent cremasteric reflex, and a high-riding testicle. Testicular cancer typically presents as a painless mass or swelling in the scrotum, and hydrocele presents as painless scrotal swelling due to a collection of fluid

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The best time for an incontinent patient to take diuretics is at bedtime. This timing allows for increased urine production during the night, consequently reducing the need for frequent toileting during the day. By taking the diuretic at bedtime, the patient can manage their incontinence more effectively and have better rest without disruptions from frequent urination during the day.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's priority action when noticing a malfunctioning anesthesia machine in the operating room should be to inform the anesthesia provider immediately. Anesthesia providers are responsible for administering anesthesia safely during surgical procedures, and they need to be made aware of any equipment issues promptly to ensure patient safety. Continuing with the surgical procedure using a malfunctioning anesthesia machine can pose serious risks to the patient's well-being. Using an alternative anesthesia machine may be an option, but informing the anesthesia provider first ensures that the appropriate action is taken to address the issue effectively. Documenting the malfunction in the equipment log is important for record-keeping purposes, but it should not take precedence over informing the anesthesia provider and taking immediate action to address the problem.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presence of risk factors indicates an increased likelihood or susceptibility to developing a particular disease. While risk modification and healthy lifestyle choices can help reduce the risk, having these risk factors still increases the overall chances of getting the disease compared to individuals without the same risk factors. It is essential for individuals with risk factors to be proactive in managing their health to mitigate the increased risk.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation with a blood sugar level of 800mg/dL, absence of ketones in the urine, dehydration, and altered mental status points towards Hyperosmolar nonketotic coma (HNKC). HNKC typically occurs in patients with Type 2 diabetes and is characterized by extremely high blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia) without significant ketosis. The absence of ketones in the urine distinguishes HNKC from Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Patients with HNKC often present with severe dehydration, altered mental status, and hyperosmolarity. It is crucial to address the underlying cause of the hyperglycemia, correct dehydration, and normalize blood glucose levels promptly in the management of HNKC.