Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anterior uveitis. This condition presents with redness, pain, and photophobia due to inflammation of the uveal tract. Ciliary injection, corneal edema, and mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light are classic signs of anterior uveitis. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific findings: B: Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with a high intraocular pressure, not fixed dilated pupil. C: Endophthalmitis typically presents with severe pain, hypopyon, and vitreous inflammation. D: Corneal abrasion would not cause ciliary injection or fixed dilated pupil.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary prevention. In this scenario, the clinic focuses on preventing disease before it occurs through health education and immunization. Primary prevention aims to promote general health and prevent the onset of diseases. It targets the entire population to reduce the risk of disease occurrence. Incorrect Choices: A: Diagnosis and treatment - This choice involves identifying and treating existing health conditions, which is not the primary focus of a clinic designed for health education and immunization. B: Secondary prevention - This choice involves early detection and treatment of diseases to prevent complications, which is more focused on individuals who already have risk factors or symptoms, not on the general population. D: Tertiary prevention - This choice involves managing and treating complications of diseases to prevent further deterioration, which is not the primary goal of a clinic focused on health education and immunization.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieves pain by increasing pain threshold. Meperidine and codeine are opioid analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, thus increasing the pain threshold and reducing the perception of pain. This leads to pain relief without necessarily affecting sexual stimulation (choice A), craving for alcohol (choice C), or concentration/alertness (choice D). The primary physiological effect of these drugs is to modulate the perception of pain, making choice B the most appropriate answer in this context.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the death of a spouse, child, or death by suicide are all significant losses that can lead to complicated grief due to the intensity of emotions and the disruption of daily life. These experiences can result in prolonged and severe grieving processes that may require professional intervention. Explanation for other choices: A: Childbirth, marriage, and divorce are not typically considered risk factors for complicated grief as they are more commonly associated with expected life events that may involve grief but not necessarily lead to complicated grief. C: Inadequate perception of the grieving process may contribute to difficulties in coping with grief but is not a direct risk factor for complicated grief. D: While inadequate support can impact the grieving process, and old age may present unique challenges, they are not specific risk factors for complicated grief compared to the profound loss experienced in choice B.