ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anterior uveitis. This condition presents with redness, pain, and photophobia due to inflammation of the uveal tract. Ciliary injection, corneal edema, and mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light are classic signs of anterior uveitis. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific findings: B: Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with a high intraocular pressure, not fixed dilated pupil. C: Endophthalmitis typically presents with severe pain, hypopyon, and vitreous inflammation. D: Corneal abrasion would not cause ciliary injection or fixed dilated pupil.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about medication adherence. What approach by the nurse promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to ask questions and express concerns promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care. This approach fosters communication, understanding, and collaboration between the nurse and patient, leading to better medication adherence. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks patient involvement. Choice B is helpful but does not necessarily empower the patient. Choice D is directive and does not encourage active participation or empowerment.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele? To ____________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele is to correct the neurologic defect. This is because myelomeningocele is a type of neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its protective covering do not close properly. Surgical repair aims to close the opening in the spinal cord to prevent further damage, improve neurological function, and reduce the risk of complications such as paralysis and infection. The other choices are incorrect as they are not the primary goal of the surgery. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary reason. Seizure disorders (Choice C) and hydrocephalus (Choice D) may be associated complications but are not the main purpose of the surgical repair.
Question 4 of 9
You should check the patient for suspect disturbed thought processes related to depressed metabolism and altered cardiovascular and respiratory status. What is the rationale for orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provides reality orientation to patient. Orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events helps them stay connected to reality and improves their awareness of their surroundings. This is crucial in assessing their cognitive functioning and ensuring they are grounded in the present moment. By providing reality orientation, healthcare providers can better understand the patient's current mental state and address any potential confusion or disorientation. This approach aids in establishing a therapeutic environment and enhances the patient's overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D do not capture the essence of reality orientation and its significance in maintaining the patient's mental clarity and connection to the present moment.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a PRIMARY) source in a research study?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a journal article about a study using large, previously unpublished databases is a primary source as it presents original research findings firsthand. It contributes new knowledge to the field. A textbook (A) compiles existing information, not original research. A doctoral dissertation (B) critiques research but is not a primary source. A published commentary (C) interprets others' findings, making it a secondary source.
Question 6 of 9
A postpartum client complains of persistent, heavy vaginal bleeding beyond the expected timeframe. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a postpartum client complaining of persistent, heavy vaginal bleeding, the most appropriate nursing action is to assess vital signs and uterine tone. This is important to determine if the bleeding is within normal limits or if there is a potential postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) occurring. Monitoring vital signs can help identify signs of shock, while assessing uterine tone can help determine if the uterus is contracting effectively to control bleeding. Prompt assessment and early detection of PPH are crucial for effective management and prevention of complications. Encouraging increased fluid intake, applying a cold compress, and administering pain medication may be appropriate interventions in some situations, but assessing vital signs and uterine tone take priority in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.
Question 8 of 9
A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of prolonged second stage, characterized by ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a woman in active labor exhibits signs of prolonged second stage, such as ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent, one of the maternal conditions that should be considered is pelvic floor dysfunction. The pelvic floor muscles play a crucial role in supporting the uterus, bladder, and rectum. If these muscles are weak or dysfunctional, it can lead to difficulty in pushing effectively and impede the descent of the fetus through the birth canal. This can result in prolonged labor and increase the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, assessing for pelvic floor dysfunction is important in addressing the abnormal labor pattern and providing appropriate interventions to support the progress of labor.
Question 9 of 9
Outbreak of cases of typhoid fever occurs in the community. Nurse Keena should inform the residents that the transmission of the disease is through _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Food and water. Typhoid fever is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. The bacteria are shed in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate water sources or food prepared with contaminated water. This transmission route aligns with the typical epidemiology of typhoid fever outbreaks. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: A vector - Typhoid fever is not transmitted by a vector such as mosquitoes or ticks. B: Blood and body fluids - Typhoid fever is not typically spread through blood or body fluids but rather through ingestion of contaminated food or water. D: Air - Typhoid fever is not an airborne disease and is not transmitted through the air.