ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anterior uveitis. This condition presents with redness, pain, and photophobia due to inflammation of the uveal tract. Ciliary injection, corneal edema, and mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light are classic signs of anterior uveitis. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific findings: B: Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with a high intraocular pressure, not fixed dilated pupil. C: Endophthalmitis typically presents with severe pain, hypopyon, and vitreous inflammation. D: Corneal abrasion would not cause ciliary injection or fixed dilated pupil.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Rica, would like to start a conversation, which comunication technique she should use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Broad opening. Nurse Rica should use this communication technique to encourage the patient to freely express themselves without leading or interrupting. This technique helps build rapport and trust, setting a positive tone for the conversation. A: Clarifying may be too direct and might make the patient feel pressured. B: Challenging can create defensiveness and hinder open communication. C: Restating may not be as effective in initiating a conversation as broad opening. In summary, broad opening allows for a more open and relaxed conversation, fostering a conducive environment for effective communication with the patient.
Question 3 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.
Question 4 of 9
The physician inserted a chest tube drainage to Mr. Alda in order to help re-expand the lungs. Which of the following should you prepare FIRST as a nurse in case of emergency when the tube is accidentally disconnected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.
Question 5 of 9
A woman in active labor is experiencing precipitous labor with rapid cervical dilation and descent of the fetal presenting part. What maternal complication should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Precipitous labor is characterized by rapid cervical dilation and descent of the fetal presenting part, leading to a shortened labor duration of less than 3 hours. This rapid progression can increase the risk of maternal complications, such as postpartum hemorrhage. Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as excessive bleeding of more than 500 ml after vaginal delivery or more than 1000 ml after cesarean delivery. The rapid delivery in precipitous labor can result in inadequate uterine contractions after delivery, leading to poor uterine tone and potential postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate postpartum hemorrhage as a potential maternal complication in a woman experiencing precipitous labor.
Question 6 of 9
When the lecture presentation was finished, the CI proceeded with the _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an open forum to solicit questions related to the topic under discussion is a common practice after a lecture presentation. This allows for clarification and deeper understanding. Choice A is incorrect as evaluation usually comes after the lecture. Choice B is incorrect because the Q&A portion typically focuses on the lecture content only. Choice D is incorrect as cracking humorous anecdotes is not a standard practice after a lecture.
Question 7 of 9
A patient that had a stroke is experiencing memory loss and impaired learning capacity. In which lobe does the nurse determine that brain damage has MOST likely occurred?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Temporal lobe. Memory and learning are primarily associated with the temporal lobe, specifically the hippocampus. Damage to this area due to stroke can lead to memory loss and impaired learning capacity. Frontal lobe (A) is involved in decision-making and problem-solving. Parietal lobe (B) is responsible for sensory processing. Occipital lobe (C) is related to visual processing. Therefore, the temporal lobe is the most likely site of brain damage in this scenario based on the symptoms presented.
Question 8 of 9
At the pre-Entry phase, which of the following is the FIRST step in the CO-PAR process
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Create a core group. In the CO-PAR process, creating a core group is the first step in the pre-Entry phase as it establishes a team of committed individuals who will lead the participatory action research. This core group will provide leadership, coordination, and represent the diversity of the community. Surveying the community (choice A) comes after forming the core group to gather information. Training the technical working group (choice B) and holding a community assembly (choice C) are subsequent steps in the process after the core group is established.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.