ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described is consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis involves inflammation of the iris and ciliary body. Patients typically present with symptoms such as redness, pain, photophobia, and blurred vision. The slit-lamp examination findings of ciliary injection (redness and dilation of blood vessels in the iris and ciliary body), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light (due to ciliary muscle spasm causing decreased accommodation) are characteristic of anterior uveitis. This condition is often idiopathic but can be associated with various systemic diseases like ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, and other autoimmune disorders. Treatment involves addressing the inflammation with topical corticosteroids and, in some cases, cycloplegic agents to reduce pain and inflammation.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a tumor compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pituitary adenoma is the most likely neurological condition responsible for the described symptoms of acute onset severe headache, visual disturbances, and altered mental status when a tumor is found compressing the optic chiasm. Pituitary adenomas are benign tumors arising from the pituitary gland located at the base of the brain. As the tumor grows, it can compress nearby structures such as the optic chiasm, leading to visual disturbances (due to pressure on the optic nerves), severe headache (due to increased intracranial pressure), and altered mental status (due to effects on nearby brain structures).
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic signs of diabetes mellitus. In this case, the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and glycosuria (glucose in the urine) further support the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Insulin deficiency or resistance in diabetes leads to impaired glucose utilization and excessive glucose in the bloodstream, causing the classic symptoms observed in the patient. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and Cushing's syndrome do not typically present with the hallmark symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse educator Adalynn reviewed the risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage for the mothers. Which of the following factors IS NOT included ____?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a significant complication after childbirth. The risk factors for PPH that are typically included in the list are uterine atony, overdistended uterus (e.g., multiple gestation or polyhydramnios), and ruptured uterus. Retroversion of the uterus is not a known risk factor for PPH. Retroversion refers to the position of the uterus, where it is tilted back towards the rectum. While retroverted uterus can sometimes lead to other issues or complications during pregnancy, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse expect to see as symptoms in a child with ADHD?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Children with ADHD often display hyperactive and impulsive behaviors, such as excessive running, climbing, and fidgeting. These behaviors are characteristic symptoms of the hyperactive-impulsive subtype of ADHD. Children with ADHD may struggle to sit still, have difficulty engaging in quiet activities, and often seem on the go. Therefore, the nurse would expect to see signs of excessive movement and restlessness in a child with ADHD.
Question 6 of 9
Bulimia is best defined as a /an _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is best defined as a pathological disorder involving recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or misuse of laxatives. It is categorized as an eating disorder rather than a phobic disorder as it involves behaviors related to food consumption and body image, not just fears or phobias. Bulimia is not solely associated with starving oneself, as individuals with bulimia tend to consume large amounts of food during binge episodes. Therefore, the most accurate definition of bulimia is a pathological disorder of binging and vomiting.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with advanced cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety during episodes of breathlessness. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Opioid medications are considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for dyspnea in palliative care patients with advanced cancer. Opioids help relieve dyspnea by reducing respiratory drive and the sensation of breathlessness, providing effective symptom management. In this case, addressing the patient's dyspnea with opioid medications would likely also help alleviate their anxiety related to breathlessness. Administering oxygen therapy (choice A) may not be effective at relieving dyspnea in this situation, as dyspnea in advanced cancer patients is often not primarily due to low oxygen levels. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques (choice B) and referring the patient to a respiratory therapist for breathing exercises (choice D) may be helpful complementary interventions, but opioid medications should be the priority for symptom management.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse informs the patient and family that rehabilitation prior to discharge is BEST described as______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rehabilitation prior to discharge is best described as a period of ups and downs, physically and emotionally because it involves the recovery process after an illness, injury, or medical procedure. It is a challenging time where the patient may experience setbacks and improvements on their journey back to health. There can be physical challenges such as regaining strength and mobility, as well as emotional challenges like coping with the changes in their condition. Therefore, the rehabilitation process is often not smooth and can be a rollercoaster of progress and setbacks, both physically and emotionally.
Question 9 of 9
There are five criteria in prioritizing community health problems. If Nurse Maris is estimating the proportion of the population affected by the problem, she is using what criterion in prrioritization?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When Nurse Maris is estimating the proportion of the population affected by the problem, she is assessing the magnitude of the problem. The magnitude criterion involves determining the extent of the issue within the community, such as the number of individuals affected or at risk. By understanding the magnitude of a health problem, nurses can better prioritize their efforts to address the most pressing issues that affect a large portion of the population. This criterion helps in identifying which health problems have the highest impact and require immediate attention in order to improve community health outcomes.