ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus, often triggered by head movements. Dix-Hallpike maneuver elicits positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus triggered by head movements, along with a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver eliciting positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus, is classic for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV). BPPV is the most common cause of vertigo due to a mechanical problem in the inner ear. In BPPV, brief episodes of vertigo are typically triggered by specific head movements, such as rolling over in bed or looking up. The characteristic rotary nystagmus observed in BPPV is consistent with the brief, intense episodes of vertigo that patients experience. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver, commonly used to diagnose BPPV, involves moving the patient from sitting to a supine head-hanging position and can induce vertigo and nystagmus in affected
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, affecting the genital area. The patient reports a history of similar lesions in the past, occurring during periods of stress. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described, involving multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base in the genital area, is classic for herpes simplex genitalis. This condition is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and is characterized by recurrent outbreaks of painful vesicles in the genital or perianal area. The history of similar lesions occurring during periods of stress is also suggestive of herpes simplex virus reactivation. Genital warts (condyloma acuminata) typically present as painless, fleshy growths in the genital area caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Syphilis manifests as a painless ulcer known as a chancre, which is not described in the presentation. Molluscum contagiosum presents with pearly, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication, rather than vesicles.
Question 3 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage dementia experiences agitation and restlessness. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with end-stage dementia experiencing agitation and restlessness is to create a calm and soothing environment to promote relaxation. Patients with dementia often respond positively to a familiar and tranquil setting, which can help reduce their symptoms of agitation and restlessness. This approach is preferred over administering antipsychotic medications or recommending physical exercise, as these may not be feasible or beneficial for patients in the advanced stages of dementia. Referring the patient to a psychiatrist may not address the immediate need for symptom management and can be considered if other interventions are ineffective. Creating a calm environment, such as dim lighting, soft music, and familiar objects, can help provide comfort and reduce distress for the patient.
Question 4 of 9
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute gastrointestinal bleeding requiring urgent intervention. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's bleeding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute gastrointestinal bleeding requiring urgent intervention, the healthcare team should prioritize performing endoscopic hemostasis with mechanical or thermal techniques. Endoscopy allows for direct visualization of the source of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, enabling targeted interventions such as clipping, cauterization, or injection of epinephrine to achieve hemostasis. This approach is effective in managing acute bleeds and can help stop the bleeding quickly, reducing the need for more invasive procedures or surgeries. Administering proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may be considered for acid-related bleeding, but it is not the primary intervention for acute bleeding requiring urgent management. Strict bed rest may not be necessary and can increase the risk of complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma may be indicated if there is evidence of coagulopathy, but addressing the bleeding source should be the initial priority to
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with a unilateral, painless enlargement of the thyroid gland. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals numerous microfollicles and psammoma bodies. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type of thyroid cancer and is known for presenting as a painless unilateral enlargement of the thyroid gland. Fine-needle aspiration cytology typically reveals classic features such as numerous microfollicles and psammoma bodies. Thyroglossal duct cyst, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, and thyroid adenoma would not typically present with these cytological features or with painless thyroid enlargement as seen in papillary thyroid carcinoma.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a hyperdense lesion within the brain parenchyma, suggestive of acute bleeding. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intracerebral hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding directly into the brain parenchyma, leading to the sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and neurological deficits. The hyperdense lesion seen on imaging is caused by the presence of blood within the brain tissue. This condition is often associated with hypertension and can be life-threatening if not promptly diagnosed and managed. Subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood between the brain and its outermost covering (dura mater), typically presenting with a slower onset of symptoms compared to intracerebral hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage involves bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (subarachnoid space), commonly caused by the rupture of an aneurysm. Ischemic stroke results from the blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to
Question 7 of 9
A patient is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant for the management of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic effects, which can lead to various cardiovascular side effects, including orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and potential hypertension. While hypotension is a possible adverse effect, hypertension is more commonly associated with TCAs. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the patient for signs of hypertension, such as elevated blood pressure readings, to prevent any adverse outcomes and ensure the patient's safety while on this medication.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies during the humoral immune response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Plasma cells are the primary type of cells responsible for the production of antibodies during the humoral immune response. When activated by antigens, B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which are specialized in producing large quantities of antibodies. These antibodies are essential in fighting off infections by binding to antigens and marking them for destruction by other immune cells. T helper cells assist in activating B cells, but the actual production of antibodies is mainly carried out by plasma cells. Memory B cells are involved in mounting a rapid and specific secondary response upon re-exposure to the same antigen. Macrophages play a role in phagocytosis and antigen presentation, but they are not the primary cells responsible for producing antibodies during the humoral immune response.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with selective IgA deficiency, a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Selective IgA deficiency is a primary immunodeficiency disorder characterized by low or absent levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) in the blood. Since IgA plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity and defense against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, individuals with this deficiency are more susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. In contrast, severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a more severe immunodeficiency disorder affecting T and B lymphocytes, chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is a disorder of phagocytes, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an autoimmune disease involving red blood cells, none of which are directly associated with selective IgA deficiency.