A patient presents with recurrent episodes of venous thrombosis, including deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE), despite no apparent provoking factors. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of venous thrombosis, including deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE), despite no apparent provoking factors. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Factor V Leiden mutation is the most common inherited predisposition to venous thrombosis. In this condition, there is a specific mutation in the factor V gene (also known as factor V Leiden) that makes factor V resistant to inactivation by activated protein C. This resistance leads to excessive clot formation, increasing the risk of recurrent venous thrombosis like DVT and PE. Patients with Factor V Leiden mutation may have a history of recurrent unprovoked venous thrombosis at a young age. In comparison, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C deficiency, and protein S deficiency are other inherited thrombophilias that may increase the risk of venous thrombosis, but Factor V Leiden mutation is the most likely cause in this case based on the presentation of recurrent episodes without apparent provoking factors.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with generalized weakness, headache, and difficulty concentrating. Laboratory tests reveal normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. These findings are characteristic of anemia of chronic disease, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, there is a decrease in renal production of erythropoietin, leading to reduced stimulation of erythropoiesis and subsequent anemia. The normocytic normochromic anemia pattern is typical in anemia of chronic disease, as opposed to microcytic hypochromic anemia seen in iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia, which is not described in the scenario. Therefore, the most likely cause of the patient's presentation is chronic kidney disease.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the right middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient is presenting with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech, which are classic symptoms of a stroke. The involvement of the right middle cerebral artery territory on imaging suggests an acute infarction, confirming an ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs due to a blockage or obstruction within a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients reaching brain tissue. This results in neurological deficits corresponding to the affected area of the brain. In contrast, a transient ischemic attack (TIA) would present with similar symptoms but resolve within 24 hours without evidence of acute infarction on imaging. Intracerebral hemorrhage and subarachnoid hemorrhage involve bleeding into the brain tissue or the space surrounding the brain, respectively, resulting in different clinical presentations.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with gradual-onset memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with complex tasks such as managing finances and planning. Over time, the patient develops disorientation to time and place and requires assistance with activities of daily living. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of gradual-onset memory loss, confusion, difficulty with complex tasks, disorientation, and functional decline are all classic features of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein deposits in the brain, leading to widespread neuronal damage and cognitive decline. As the disease progresses, patients typically experience worsening memory loss, cognitive impairment, and deficits in activities of daily living, ultimately requiring full-time care and assistance. Other neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, and frontotemporal dementia may present with cognitive impairment and behavioral changes, but the specific constellation of symptoms described in the case is most indicative of Alzheimer's disease.

Question 5 of 5

A patient expresses frustration with the treatment plan proposed by the healthcare team. What is the most appropriate response from the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response from the nurse when a patient expresses frustration with the treatment plan proposed by the healthcare team is to empathize with the patient's frustration and explore their concerns further. It is important to actively listen to the patient, acknowledge their feelings, and address any questions or uncertainties they may have about the treatment plan. By engaging in open communication and demonstrating empathy, the nurse can foster a therapeutic relationship with the patient and work towards finding a solution that is mutually agreeable and beneficial for the patient's well-being. Dismissing the patient's concerns (Option A) or ignoring their frustration (Option C) can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust, which may ultimately impact the patient's compliance with the treatment plan. Similarly, telling the patient that they have no choice but to follow the treatment plan (Option D) can be perceived as dismissive and confrontational, which is not conducive to promoting patient-centered care.

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